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20 minutes ( 10 minutes in reading the passage and 10 in answering the questions) all correct.

4. According to the passage, the Handlins have argued which of the following about the relationship between racial prejudice and the institution of legal slavery in the English colonies of North America?

(A) Racial prejudice and the institution of slavery arose simultaneously.
(B) Racial prejudice most often took the forn of the imposition of inherited status, one of the attributes of slavery.
(C) The source of racial p(prejudice was the institution of slavery. - correct "If from the outset Black people were discriminated against, then legal slavery should be viewed as a reflection and an extension of racial prejudice rather than, as many hIstorians including the Handlins have argued, the cause of prejudice."
(D) Because of the influence of the Roman Catholic church, racial prejudice sometimes did not result in slavery.
(E) Although existing in a lesser forn before the 1660's, racial prejudice increased sharply after slavery was legalized.

5. The passage suggests that the existence of a Roman conception of slavery in Spanish and Portuguese colonies had the effect of

(A) extending rather than causing racial prejudice in these colonies
(B) hastening the legalization of slavery in these colonies
(C) mitigating some of the conditions of slavery for Black people in these colonies "for the harsher treatment of Black slaves in North than in South America. Freyre and Tannenbaum have rightly argued that the lack of certain traditions in North America-such as a Roman conception of slavery and a Roman Catholic emphasis on equality-explains why the treatment of Black slaves was more severe there than in the Spanish and Portuguese colonies of South America."
(D) delaying the introduction of slavery into the English colonies
(E) bringing about an improvement in the treatment of Black slaves in the English colonies
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1) (D) A statement about a historical phenomenon is offered and a possible misinterpretation of that statement is addressed.
First part of the 1st paragraph states a historical phenomenon and second part states a possible misimterpretation

2) (D) The acts, at the very least, caused the position of White servants to remain no better than it had been before the 1660's.

2nd paragraph - the Handlins cannot adequate!y demonstrate that the White servant's position was improving during and after the 1660's

3) (A) Although Black people were not legally considered to be slaves, they were often called slaves.
2nd paragraph- It is true that before the 1660's Black people were rarely called slaves

4)(C)The source of racial p(prejudice was the institution of slavery.[/b]
paragraph 3 - legal slavery should be viewed as a reflection and an extension of racial prejudice

5) (C) mitigating some of the conditions of slavery for Black people in these colonies [/b]
the early and sometimes extreme racial discrimination in the English colonies helped determine the particular nature of the slavery that followed.

6) (B) valid but limited -
3d paragraph - But this cannot be the whole explanation

7) (E) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to the history of Black people in the colonies l?efore 1660 than by reference to the improving position of White servants during and after the 1660's.
The Handlins said that there were improvements for slavery conditions, but authors disagree and bring opposite argumentation in 2 paragraph
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Can someone kindly explain the passage? I have trouble understanding it even though there were no challenging vocabularies. Reading the passage, I can't understand Oscar & Mary Handlin's position. Do they believe or not believe slavery occur only after 1660? There are some other parts such as the White servants position was improving relative to the Blacks => causing slavery? Shouldn't the logic be reversed?
Thank you,
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explanations for question no.3
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nityakaul02
explanations for question no.3

Hi nityakaul02,

Let me know if this helps.

3. With which of the following statements regarding the status of Black people in the English colonies of North America before the 1660's would the author be LEAST likely to agree?

(A) Although Black people were not legally considered to be slaves, they were often called slaves.
(B) Although subject to some discrimination, Black people had a higher legal status than they did after the 1660's.
(C) Although sometimes subject to lifetime servitude, Black people were not legally considered to be slaves.
(D) Although often not treated the same as White people, Black people, like many White people, possessed the legal status of servants.
(E) Although apparently subject to more discrimination after 1630 than before 1630, Black people from 1620 to the 1660's were legally considered to be servants.


Correct Answer : A,
Explanation: Opposite of A has been discussed in the passage: Before 1660's Black People were treated as slaves, but rarely called so and there is evidence from 1630 to prove the same, which is why A is the correct answer. It can be also inferred from the lines: "It is true that before the 1660's Black people were rarely called slaves. But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery."
All the other options have been discussed in the passage and agreed upon by the author.


Thanks.
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Kindly provide the explanation for ques 3,4,5

Posted from my mobile device

blueshores For Q3) Read Carefully it ask for LEAST its states quite clearly in the paragraph

So Option A is Correct.

carcass
But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery

Hi, I agree with why A should be the answer but I am not able to exclude B. Where are the rights compared in the passage ?
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blueshores
Kindly provide the explanation for ques 3,4,5

Posted from my mobile device

blueshores For Q3) Read Carefully it ask for LEAST its states quite clearly in the paragraph

So Option A is Correct.

carcass
But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery

Hi, I agree with why A should be the answer but I am not able to exclude B. Where are the rights compared in the passage ?


Hi Pranjal3107,

Option B can be interpreted from the lines: "Thus, the Handlins contend, Black and White servants heretofore treated alike, each attained a different status......It is true that before the 1660's Black people were rarely called slaves. But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery."

The legal status being referred to in the passage is the slavery.


Hope This Helps.
Thanks.
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can someone exlain 7th question ?
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Can someone please explain Q1 and Q7? Thanks!
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7. With which of the following statements regarding the reason for the introduction of legal slavery in the English colonies of North America would the author be most likely to agree?

IJIJ
Can someone please explain Q1 and Q7? Thanks!

(A) The introduction is partly to be explained by reference to the origins of slavery, before the 1660's, in the Spanish and Portuguese colonies.
The author mentions the Spanish and Portuguese colonies to emphasize the racial prejudice in the English colonies, nothing about it impacting why the English colonies introduced legal slavery.

(B) The introduction is to be explained by reference to a growing consensus beginning in the 1630's about what were the attributes of true slavery.

The passage focuses on the discrimination and social construction rather than intellectual agreement on what the attributes are.

(C) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to a decline than to an improvement in the position of White servants in the colonies during and after the 1660's.

While the author does argue that there's no strong evidence of the position of White servants improving, the author doesn't say that there was a decline in the position. The position could have just stayed the same but the position of Black servants worsened or was just bad for long enough to legalize slavery.

(D) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to the position of Black servants in the colonies in the 1630's than by reference to their position in the 1640's and 1650's.

I found this tricky to eliminate. The author does state in the final sentence of the 3rd paragraph that it's more likely that "the early and sometimes extreme racial discrimination in the English colonies..." was the cause but the author uses evidence from 1630 and onward, not stating a specific period (the 1630s compared to the 1640s/50s). This choice is too narrow which is why E is correct.

(E) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to the history of Black people in the colonies l?efore 1660 than by reference to the improving position of White servants during and after the 1660's.

The author criticizes Handlins' argument that the legalized slavery arose from the improvement of White servant's position relative to Black's. The author argues that there is insufficient evidence and that discrimination existed before the 1660s, before legalized slavery. According to the second sentence in the final paragraph, "If from the outset Black people were discriminated against, then legal slavery should be viewed as a reflection and an extension of racial prejudice rather than... the cause of prejudice." Since legalized slavery was likely a continuation of discrimination, E captures what the author would agree.
In short, the authors conclusion is that early discrimination is more compelling of a cause to why slavery was legalized rather than Handlins' theory that it was because of the improving position of White servants.
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