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Argument: Heart diseases = Saturated fats. Red wine = Decreased heart disease.
Saturated fats = Spain = Argentina BUT Heart disease > Argentine maybe because Red wine consumption is higher.
Though, Red gap of consumption rates of red wine is falling BUT no change in heart disease.
Paradox: If the wine consumption rates is falling in Argentina then why isn't heart disease rates are going up?


A. The per capita consumption of red wine has increased notably in the Spain over the past decade.
Wrong. The paradox in the argument premise is not about Spain.

B. The relative incidence of other factors that contribute to heart disease, such as cigarette smoking and high cholesterol levels, is roughly the same in both countries.
Wrong. Argentina needs to have other factors percentage low in order to state the fact that heart disease percentage is less in Argentina.

C. Per capita consumption of red wine among the under-40 age group in Argentina has dropped notably, but heart disease does not generally manifest until after the age of 40.
Right. Really did not like this answer stem but came to through POE. The paradox states that wine rates have dropped notably but why is heart diesease not decreasing. So this resolves the paradox by saying that people under 40 wine consumption have gone down and heart diseases occur after 40!

D. Heart disease generally results from the build-up of fatty plaques in the inner lining of the arterial vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.
Wrong. I picked up this choice but it was a trick answer. This is going against the argument and if we have read the CR Manhattan book, it states that whatever Argument says logical or illogical is 100% true.

E. Per capita consumption of saturated fats has decreased notably in both countries over the past decade.
Wrong. If per capita consumption of saturated fats decreased in both the countries then is there is a disparity of heart disease percentage. They should be the same.
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