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feruz77
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i solved this the regular way; like for homework all those years ago! ran into 194481 along the way which upon reduction turned out to be the perfect square of 441; eventually ended up with x=40 and plugged it back in to get A. took me a good 20 mins... that's one heavy workout question. good for practice but quite un-gmatical
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woww that's impossible for the gmat, not because of the time, but because you don't have a calculator
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Accident prone and time consumint problem....... Conceptual nevertheless.
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Thanks everybody for your explanations.
I really got them very useful for how to approach such a question.

The KAPLAN instructor asked me for the source: it is the Math Question Bank for Problem Solving from WinningPrepGMAT at www.my-gmat.com.

Frankly speaking I have found also a lot of PS questions there which are too far from being in an actual GMAT format.

Thanks a lot one more time for explanations
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Here's my solution, which i think it's practical to do in 1.30-2 min in GMAT

Quote:
The owner of an art shop conducts his business in the following manner. Every once in a while he raises his prices fo x%, then a while later he reduces all the new prices by x%. After one such up-down cycle the price of a painting decreased by $ 441. After a second up-down cycle the painting was sold for $ 1944.81. What was the original price of the painting in $?

A) 2756.25
B) 2256.25
C) 2500
D) 2000
E) 5000

firstly, i will eliminate E because it's too much..

the 1st time reduction is 441
but the price after 2 times reduction is 1944.81

So, we can cut D and B ..

now only 2756 and 2500 left
the final price is 1944.81..
C); 2500 - 1944 = ~550
B); 2756 - 1944 = ~800

because the first reduction is 441 so the 2nd reduction should be lower than 441
but in C ; 550-441 = ~110 .. its too much reduction in the 2nd round
so B; 800-441 = ~ 360 seems quite good..

So, I choose B
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I didnt actually solve the problem but ended up with A.

Here is the way I thought of it.
Take an example: price = 100$.
If you increase this by 10% we get $110.

And then is we reduce this price by 10%, we end up with $99.

Basically, if you see the trend, the actual price decreases with each cycle of increasing and decreasing the price. Also, the trend shows that the delta increases with each price change. (First it was 10, and then 11)

We are given that the price is decreased by $441 on the first try.
On the second try looking at the trend, we know that the delta will be > $441 ~ lets take $500.

The final price is $1944.81. Before discount this price will be $1944 + $500 (assumption) ~ $2500

The reason I chose A is because $2500 is too perfect. so I went a little higher because I know that the answer cannot be less that (1944+441), and $5000 is too big.
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