aagar2003
Who can explain how to make sure that 'they' in the second sentence after comma refers to rats and not the scientists themselves.
Also official explanation for answer choice E mentions usage of pronouns 'it' and 'they' introduces ambiguity. Really?
I thought 'it' clearly refers to the disease without any ambiguity and them in this case should be rats (by commonsense). Can somebody please clarify in details?
Second Option : earlier, but they were not showing no signs of the disease then
This option is fatally wrong because of double negation.
'They were not showing ANY signs of disease' is to be used instead of
''They were not showing NO signs of disease'Now coming back to your point. 'They' refers back to rats because its the rats who are being noted for the disease and not the scientists. Please make sure that you never check pronoun errors in vacuum.
Grammatically a pronoun can refer back to multiple nouns but if contextually it refers back to one noun then it can simply be overlooked.You might want to fit the noun in place of pronoun to check if it makes sense.
The scientists noted that rats suffering from the rare degenerative disease had begun to die six months earlier, even though SCIENTISTS had shown no signs of the disease then.
how can the dying of rats be connected to scientists showing signs of disease? can it?
I'll explain you with another example mentioned in one of the GMATclub threads:
King George is the ruler of the largest empire, its size as large as a continent.What are the possible antecedents for the pronoun “its” in the above sentence?
“empire, continent”.Now consider the following sentences and see which of them make sense in the context of the given sentence.
a. King George is the ruler of the largest empire, the
empire’s size as large as a continent. (Makes perfect sense.)
b. King George is the ruler of the largest empire, the
continent’s size as large as a continent. (This sentence doesn’t sound logical. Why does a continent come into the picture all of a sudden?)
As you can see only “empire” is the logical antecedent of the pronoun “its” in the above sentence.
Therefore the pronoun “its” unambiguously refers to “empire”Which is why they use the word 'logical' in the very definition.
Attachments
Screen Shot 2014-03-11 at 5.43.00 PM.png [ 38.46 KiB | Viewed 9139 times ]