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Although above posts have explained that D is wrong and B is right due to standard English and weather conditions don’t have capability to be foreseen

But my query is different as below:
Please check AjiteshArun IanStewart GMATIntensive


D says: weather conditions that are not foreseeable. It means there are some conditions that are foreseeable.
IN other words, It is same way to say Pilot errors= some errors may happen. Similarly some weather conditions are not foreseeable( We tried to foresee but we could not due to some errors )

Accidents could be avoided because accidents happen only with those errors that are not foreseeable. Accidents may not have happened with conditions that are foreseeable .
E.g. Pilot errors ( errors that can be avoided)

For B: weather conditions that cannot be foreseen then it a complete set and indicates that no matter what accidents would happen because a weather conditions which can not be foresee , can not be foresee( means you can not do anything about it)
Here : technical errors are suitable example:. ( you cannot control technical errors)

So I chose D over B after this much analysis and found wrong in the end:(
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Hi mSKR,

I strongly recommend that you look at B/D as a pure "sound" call. For example:

1. A device that cannot be repaired
2. A device that is not repairable

Can we really say that (2) is wrong? No. But (1) is better than (2), even though it is (slightly) longer and uses the passive voice.

Keep in mind that some GMAT questions will come down to "sound" calls like this one. Not all questions will include clear-cut grammar or meaning calls.
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Gmat ninja - I want to know your views on usage of "foreseeable" and "unforseeable" and "foreseen". Is the use of unforeseeable weather conditions in option C correct?
I agree with a lot of the experts on this thread: it's not worth your time to deeply engage with the difference between "unforeseeable weather conditions," "weather conditions that cannot be foreseen," and "weather conditions that are not foreseeable."

(C) can be eliminated because the pronoun "they" has no logical antecedent.

As for (B) vs. (D) -- this is one of the unfortunate questions that comes down to slight stylistic differences. There is no grammatical issue with either option, and there isn't a huge difference in meaning between the two choices. If you're in the test and struggling with something like (B) vs. (D), your best bet is to decide quickly between the two and move on to other, more fruitful questions.

The good news is that this is likely a very, very old question, and it seems like GMAC is moving away from testing subtle use of idioms that don't impact the meaning of a sentence. So please don't kill too many brain cells over this issue :).

I hope that helps a bit!
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Can we conclude that in questions such as these, in which we're stuck between choices such as [B] and [E], and the only difference is between the choices is the Correct idiomatic usage, it's always better to go with the idiom used in the original sentence if we're not confident about either of them?
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Can we conclude that in questions such as these, in which we're stuck between choices such as [b] and [E], and the only difference is between the choices is the Correct idiomatic usage, it's always better to go with the idiom used in the original sentence if we're not confident about either of them?
Hi Naresh, idiomatic usage is not the only difference between B and E.

The pronoun they in option E does not have any valid antecedent in E and (believe it or not) this is a very big deal on GMAT SC.

p.s. It is extremely unlikely that idiomatic usage is the only difference between two choices on GMAT.
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I was between B and D. When I encounter something like this and the timer is reaching the upper acceptable limit, I begin using my ear instead of rules. B sounded better than D and therefore I chose B. Using your ear is not ideal; but, when you are running out of time on a question and you must move on, it may be your best bet.
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Is D incorrect only because its verbose? Or am I missing something here?
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Is D incorrect only because its verbose? Or am I missing something here?

Because it has the same number of words and one more character than the right answer? No, this is definitely not about verbosity, which is not something we particularly care about on the GMAT.
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Is D incorrect only because its verbose? Or am I missing something here?
Check out our (admittedly unsatisfying) post about (D) here!
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Option D uses unforeseeable(adjective) as a noun that's why it is wrong.
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Option D uses unforeseeable(adjective) as a noun that's why it is wrong.

No it doesn't.

Option D uses "unforeseeable" (adjective) as an adjective. The verb "is" can take as its object an adjective.

(I suppose I might be more technically accurate to say that the verb "is" is intransitive and does not have a direct object, traditionally speaking, at all. Either way, the fact remains, the word after "is" does not need to be a noun.)
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Hi Experts

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I got this question right but still I have a doubt

Active voices are those in which subject performs the action now how can " weather conditions that could not be foreseen" this sentence is in active voice.
Weather condition is not performing any actions. Can you please explain where am I wrong?

Thanks alot mentors for always helping.
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Vatsal7794


I got this question right but still I have a doubt

Active voices are those in which subject performs the action now how can " weather conditions that could not be foreseen" this sentence is in active voice.
Weather condition is not performing any actions. Can you please explain where am I wrong?

Thanks alot mentors for always helping.

Note the helping "is": "be foreseen" is passive voice.
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Vatsal7794
Hi Experts

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I got this question right but still I have a doubt

Active voices are those in which subject performs the action now how can " weather conditions that could not be foreseen" this sentence is in active voice.
Weather condition is not performing any actions. Can you please explain where am I wrong?

Thanks alot mentors for always helping.
Hi Vatsal7794,

You are not wrong. Could not be foreseen is in the passive voice.

1. X could not foresee Y. ← Active

2. Y could not be foreseen by X. ← Passive
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Hi AnthonyRitz

Thanks for the reply but didn't understand.

Please see the below two sentences
"weather conditions that cannot be foreseen" and " weather conditions that are not foreseeable"

Now first sentence is in active voice and second sentence is in passive voice.

What I have learnt about active voice is - The subject of the sentence performs the action.
But in the above first sentence "weather condition" is not performing any action then how it is in active voice.

In short what I know is - if you want to differentiate between Active and passive voice then see if the subject is performing or not. If subject is performing action then it is active else passive.
Is there any other way also to differentiate between active and passive?

Thanks
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Vatsal7794
Hi Experts

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I got this question right but still I have a doubt

Active voices are those in which subject performs the action now how can " weather conditions that could not be foreseen" this sentence is in active voice.
Weather condition is not performing any actions. Can you please explain where am I wrong?

Thanks alot mentors for always helping.
Hi Vatsal7794,

You are not wrong. Could not be foreseen is in the passive voice.

1. X could not foresee Y. ← Active

2. Y could not be foreseen by X. ← Passive


Hi AjiteshArun

Thanks for the respond.

X is performing the action of prediction that's why it is in active voice. Right?
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Vatsal7794
Hi AnthonyRitz

Thanks for the reply but didn't understand.

Please see the below two sentences
"weather conditions that cannot be foreseen" and " weather conditions that are not foreseeable"

Now first sentence is in active voice and second sentence is in passive voice.

What I have learnt about active voice is - The subject of the sentence performs the action.
But in the above first sentence "weather condition" is not performing any action then how it is in active voice.

In short what I know is - if you want to differentiate between Active and passive voice then see if the subject is performing or not. If subject is performing action then it is active else passive.
Is there any other way also to differentiate between active and passive?

Thanks

No, the first sentence is in the passive voice. You keep saying it's active (why?), but you yourself have acknowledged that the subject is not doing any action, and the use of a helping "is" in the form "be foreseen" is indicative of the passive voice. ("be" and "is" are different forms of the same verb.) One of the main uses of the verb is, as a helping verb, in the English language is to create the passive voice. (The helping "is" is also used to create the continuous, in conjunction with an "-ing" verb.)

Given your comments, the one thing that doesn't track is why you are insisting that the "first sentence is in active voice" when you're simultaneously explaining exactly why that's not true.
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