ravikrishna1979
Much of the funding provided by pharmaceutical companies goes to fellowships that help pay for the education of graduate students.
Is the above one not an activity of human welfare? The funding goes not only to research but also to human welfare activities. Means the pharmaceutical funding is happening not only for profits but for welfare as well.
Why this is not a contender? Please help
Dear
ravikrishna1979,
I'm happy to respond.
This is a subtlety of language. The conclusion says: "
Research will continue to be conducted at the expense of human welfare." In this context, "
human welfare" means the really BIG picture---which diseases get cured and which don't, which socioeconomic groups get access to which treatments, etc. The author is suggesting that the practice described in the prompt argument would result in a net loss for the human race. In other words, if we could play out one scenario in which the pharmaceutical companies were doing as described, and another ideal scenario in which research money would be distributed by some perfect system of justice, then the author is suggesting that in the second scenario, the total number of people on earth who die from diseases, say, 50 or 100 years from now, will be considerably less than it would be in the first scenario. This is the kind of scope indicated by "
human welfare."
Yes, it's true that graduate students are human beings too, but a grant that helps a team of grad students at a particular university--say a team of 100 or 200 grad students, a very large time--would still be just a pathetically small drop in the bucket compared to any of the universal scenarios outlined in the previous paragraph. Anything that helps only a 100 or only 1000 people is not healing "
human welfare"--that term, but it's nature, connotes something on a much grander scale, something on a global scale.
Jonas Salk created the polio vaccine, which lead to the widespread elimination of the disease in many parts of the world. We could say that Salk benefitted human welfare.
Gandhi liberated one country (about 20% of the human population!) from colonialism, and in doing so, he set an example that has had a profound effect on a number of other movements, including
Dr. King and the
US Civil Rights movement. We could say that Gandhi benefitted human welfare.
The
Secretary-General of the United Nations works to reduce conflict and promote peace throughout the world. The Secretary-General of the United Nations often benefits human welfare.
By contrast, I have 5000+ kudos on GMAT Club, so I have benefited several individual students, but
by no stretch of the imagination could we possibly claim that this is evidence that I have benefited "human welfare"!!
Does this distinction make sense?
Mike