Hi All,
If you don't see the 'quadratic approach' to this question, you can still solve it with a bit of 'brute force' and some Number Property knowledge. This approach won't be elegant, but if you're comfortable doing math by hand, it will get you the correct answer.
To start, we're dealing with two PERFECT SQUARES - and perfect squares can only end in certain digits. Try listing out the numbers 1-10, inclusive AND the results when you square those numbers. You'll find that the perfect squares can end in only the following digits: 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 and 9. All of the answer choices fit that limitation, BUT we're also told that adding 148 will create another perfect square.
As an example, adding 148 to a number that ends in 0 will create a new number that ends in 8.... but THAT new number won't be a perfect square (since it ends in 8). You can eliminate Answers B, D and E for that reason.
Between Answers A and C, you just have to do a little more work to prove which is the answer:
Answer A: 1296
The square root of 1296 has to be between 30 and 40 (since 30^2 = 900 and 40^2 = 1600). Since it ends in a 6, the units digit has to be either a 4 or a 6. With a little multiplication, we can figure it out...
34^2 = 1156 which is too small
36^2 = 1296 which is a MATCH
Now we just have to see what happens when we add 148 to it...
1296+148 = 1444
From our prior work, we know that the square root of 1444 has to have a units digit of either 2 or 8. 1444 is greater than 1296, so the square root of 1444 has to be greater than 36 but less than 40. Let's try 38....
38^2 = 1444 which matches perfectly with everything else that we were told, so this must be the answer.
Final Answer:
GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich