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GMATNinja - please help me explain where i am going wrong here - D says Top managers use Intuitive decision making in majority of their decisions - our premise was Top Managers use intuitive decision making more than what middle or lower level managers use (note its talking about absolute number of decisions being made by top managers vs absolute number of decisions being made by middle/lower manager) - from here to conclude that intuitive is a more effective decision making tool - a possible assumption could be that they are using intuitive based decision making in majority of their decision - unable to eliminate this answer choice - of course can understand why e is correct but cant understand why d can not be correct? please help
When a conclusion is based on an assumption, that assumption should do two things:
1) It should strengthen the argument, or at least fill in a hole in the argument somewhere.
2) It should be absolutely necessary for the argument to hold.
So if an answer choice fails to meet either one of these criteria, it's not an assumption.
Let's apply this test to (D):
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The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
(D) Top managers use intuitive reasoning in making the majority of their decisions.
The argument concludes that "intuition is actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning." The support is that "a recent study found that top managers used intuition significantly more than did most middle or lower-level managers." How does (D) impact this argument?
Well, if top managers use intuitive reasoning in the majority of their decisions, does that mean intuition is
more effective than methodical reasoning? Not necessarily. It just means it's the most popular style of decision-making with top managers. Put another way: maybe top managers don't prefer intuitive decision-making because it's more
effective, but for some other reason? For instance, maybe it's quicker? Or maybe methodical reasoning isn't possible in most cases?
Either way, the fact that top managers use intuition more than methodical reasoning doesn't strengthen the idea that it's more effective.
Based on that fact alone, we can reject (D), since assumptions have to strengthen an argument. But just for fun, let's also consider whether (D) is necessary for the argument to hold: does it
need to be true that top managers use intuitive reasoning in the majority of their decisions to conclude that it's more effective?
Definitely not. Even if they don't use it in the majority of their decisions, it might still be more effective. For example, it's possible that top managers don't use intuitive reasoning more frequently because it isn't always possible to use it. Or maybe top managers sometimes use a
less effective method just because they're idiots? After all, just because they're top managers doesn't mean they
always pick the best decision-making method.
So since (D) doesn't strengthen the argument, and since it isn't necessary for the argument to hold, it isn't an assumption, and we can reject it.
I hope that helps!