nightblade354 pikolo2510 gmatexam439 GMATNinja KarishmaBI am bit frustrated that I got this incorrect in spite of understanding the argument (at least that's my gut).
Also weaken Qs seem to be far easier to handle than inference ones.
Quote:
Court records from medieval France show that in the years 1300 to 1400 the number of people arrested in the French realm for "violent interpersonal crimes" (not committed in wars) increased by 30 percent over the number of people arrested for such crimes in the years 1200 to 1300. The increase was not the result of false arrests; therefore, medieval France had a higher level of documented interpersonal violence in the years 1300 to 1400 than in the years 1200 to 1300.
Argument understanding:
Since this is a weaken question let us begin with identifying the main conclusion, which is:
medieval France had a higher level of documented interpersonal violence in the years 1300 to 1400 than in the years 1200 to 1300.How does author arrive here:
Bases on stats of court records: In years 1200-1300 crimes not committed in wars were for e.g. 100
then In years 1300-1400 crimes not committed in wars were for e.g. 130
Author further strengthens his claim by protecting it against possible objections, one of those is:
The increase was not the result of false arrestsCool, so that makes the claim more genuine and believable.
I could reject B, C and E pretty quickly since they totally are irrelevant to the argument.
Quote:
(A) In the years 1300 to 1400 the French government's category of violent crimes included an increasing variety of interpersonal crimes that are actually nonviolent.
hmm, scope of arrest increased by arresting people who actually committed more non-violent crimes
but were labelled as having committed violent crimes and hence effectively the end number of people
documented to have committed violent crimes increased. Does not this weaken the claim?
Quote:
(D) When English armies tried to conquer parts of France in the mid- to late 1300s. violence in the northern province of Normandy and the south-western province of Gascony increased.
Does not this option provide alternate cause (English armies trying to conquer parts of France)
for the effect: violence in the northern province of Normandy and the south-western province of Gascony increased?
Is this option incorrect because of no mention of said provinces in main argument?