kassim
Mr. Mike,
if the answer in D was has been will it still be correct? and what is the difference between has and has been?
Dear
kassim,
With all due respect, my friend, punctuation is a necessary part of communication, and the absence of it makes your question somewhat hard to interpret. I believe you are asking, with the proper punctuation and grammar:
"If the answer in D
were "has been",
would it still be correct? and what is the difference between "has" and has "been"?
Here is version
(D), which is not the correct answer. Something can't "
still" be correct if it is not correct.
Elizabethan composer and lutenist John Dowling has been celebrated for his lyric writing as few composers has been.
This has a problem with SV agreement at the end: the subject "
few composers" is plural, and the verb "
has been" is singular.
I think your question is about what has to be said at the end. Let's look at version
(B), the OA.
Elizabethan composer and lutenist John Dowling has been celebrated for his lyric writing as few composers have.
That's 100% correct. Now, consider these variations:
Elizabethan composer and lutenist John Dowling has been celebrated for his lyric writing as few composers have been.
Elizabethan composer and lutenist John Dowling has been celebrated for his lyric writing as few composers have been celebrated.
Both of those are
grammatically correct, but because they make the sentence longer than necessarily, they are
rhetorically problematic. Remember, the GMAT SC is about much much more than just grammar. In parallel, we can omit repeated words, and both those extra words, "been" and "celebrated", were already stated in the first branch of the parallelism, so it is not necessary to state them again, and making the sentence longer for no good reason is not something the GMAT SC likes at all.
Here's a blog about Rhetorical Construction, one of the most important areas tested on the GMAT SC:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/rhetorical ... orrection/Does all this make sense?
Mike