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Bunuel
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a^b >1?

(1) b = 0

As we know that a!=0

Any number raised to zero will be zero.

So, (1) is sufficient to answer the question is a^b > 1

(2) a<1

From this we statement we do not know the value of b.

Hence, we can have answer to the above question as YES and NO.

Hence, B is not sufficient.

Hence, Answer is A

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If a ≠ 0, is a^b > 1?

(1) b = 0
(2) a < 1

Solution:

Statement 1: Irrespective of any value of a , a^b will be 1. So we get a confirm 'No' So it is sufficient.
Statement 2: Case 1: We get a yes. (-3)^2
Case 2: We get a no. (-3)^0

Therefore the answer is Option A.
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Imo A

The value of a^b=1 from statement 1 hence the answer is definite no .
From statement 2 we have a<0 so b can any value and a can take any negative value hence can be grater or smaller than 1 so insufficient
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