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jabhatta2
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Could someone please explain why the first statement is sufficient?
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Can someone explain how A is sufficient. It gives PQ=QR . Hence triangle is isosceles for which still angle Q can be greater than 100 or less
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Am I reading the question correctly? "Is the measure of angle PQR in triangle PQR more than 100 %" How can an angle be measured in percentage? Can someone please explain the question? I honestly did not understand it.



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