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MathRevolution
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Yes, the explanation is not Correct , if x - z >0 then how come x =2 and z=3? Please can someone help ?
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xy+z > x+yz
xy+z-x-yz>0
x(y-1)-z(y-1)>0
(x-z)(y-1)>0?

so for this statement to be true, (x-z) and (y-1) should have the same sign. We need to statements if they provide this info.

from 1: x>1, no info on y and z, so insuff
from 2: y>1, (y-1)>0, we don't have info on (x-z) so insuff


1+2 combined, x>1 and y-1>0, no info on x-z sp insuff. therefore E
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I think this is a high-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. it needs to be c
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is xy+z>x+yz
xy-yz>x-z
y(x-z)>x-z
is y>1?

whats wrong in this?
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Avinash301
is xy+z>x+yz
xy-yz>x-z
y(x-z)>x-z
is y>1?

whats wrong in this?

We cannot reduce y(x - z) > x - z by x - z because we don't know the sign of x - z. If x - z is positive then yes, we get y > 1 but if x - z is negative, then we get y < 1 (flip the sign when dividing by a negative number).
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hello, i have solved question through another my lovely method:
so xy+z>x+yz
z-yz>x-xy
z(1-y)>x(1-y)
z>x and start looking statemetns and give answers
ST1. x>1
x=positive no info about z? NS
ST2. y>1
y=positive, we dont need y so NS
Combined: nothing can be determined answer is E
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Bunuel, Please correct me if I am wrong?

We need to find, whether xy+z>x+yz

or xy +z - x - yz > 0
= x(y-1) - z (y-1)> 0
= (y-1)(x-z)> 0
So we need to find whether y> 1 and x>z (if both (y-1) and (x-z) are positive)
or y < 1 and z > x ( (if both (y-1) and (x-z) are negative)

Now, 1 says x > 1, we do not know about y and z. so, insuff
2 says y > 1, we do not know about x and z. So, insuff

Both 1 & say x > 1 and y > 1 and we know nothing about z so we do not know whether x>z. So, Insuff.

Is my way of approaching such question is appropriate?
Thanks in advance.
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