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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most

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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could

Originally posted by Vithal on 31 Mar 2005, 21:09.
Last edited by hazelnut on 23 Oct 2017, 20:44, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed do
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Re: Query regarding the usage of "NONE" in GMAT [#permalink]

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New post 28 Mar 2011, 07:04
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Look at the following OG 12 question. Note that none of plural X takes a singular verb ‘explains’, which is not underlined. Now you know the inkling of GMAT. With due reverence to MGMAT, as far as I see, in the Independent kingdom of GMAT, 'none' is singular...... unless somebody comes up with the opposite view citing an appropriate GMAC example.

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, Why so many of those not so exposed have.
(A) Have
(B) Has
(C) Shall
(D) Do
(E) Could
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Re: Query regarding the usage of "NONE" in GMAT [#permalink]

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New post 28 Mar 2011, 07:38
Thanks daagh.

Even though the MGMAT says that NONE will go along with both singular and plural verbs,based on the nouns used in the OF-Phrase, I will stick to NONE with singular usage...

I guess, these guys have started to treat NONE phrases as a compound noun.. Here "None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime" is acting as a compound sentence; therefore, a singular verb is used.

Please correct me IF I am wrong.
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Re: Query regarding the usage of "NONE" in GMAT [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 28 Mar 2011, 17:22
Quote:
I guess, these guys have started to treat NONE phrases as a compound noun.. Here "None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime" is acting as a compound sentence; therefore, a singular verb is used.
Please correct me IF I am wrong.


Sorry dragaonball:

You have misunderstood the concept of both compound nouns and compound sentences. A compound noun is one in which there will more than one noun and those two or more nouns will be connected by the conjunction ‘and’. I repeat compound nouns will have to be connected by ‘and’. As a thumb rule compound nouns are always plural.

E.g.: Tom and Dick ‘
Tom, Dick and Harry.

A compound sentence is one that has either two independent clauses or more joined by a conjunction ‘and’.
Eg; I went to New York. My brother went to Tokyo – Two independent sentences are standing alone with their own subjects and verbs but punctuated by a period. This is not a compound sentence,


I went to New York and my brother went to Tokyo; this is a compound sentence because there are two independent sentences and both are conjugated by the connector ‘and’.

Along with this please also understand the structure of complex sentences and their essentials such as how to punctuate them, how to conjugate them etc, and you can eliminate many style errors such as fragments or run - ons in GMAT SC

In your question, since ‘none of plural’ does not have the conjunction ‘and’, there is no compound noun or sentence involved.
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Originally posted by daagh on 28 Mar 2011, 08:53.
Last edited by daagh on 28 Mar 2011, 17:22, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: None (singular or plural) [#permalink]

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MGMAT SC says: Technically, none of + plural noun can take either a singular or a plural verb forms.

I think GMAT will never make you choose between A and D. I think Kaplan guys messed it up. Both A and D are correct. Whoever created this question forgot that that none is one of the SANAM pronouns and, moreover, none is still under scrutiny/debate among the big guns of Grammar.

I read a bunch of articles online on none of. This is the gist: Some people insist that since “none” is derived from “no one” it should always be singular: “none of us is having dessert.” However, in standard usage, the word is most often treated as a plural. “None of us are having dessert” will do just fine.

I highly doubt GMAT will test us on this, while all the Grammar experts are still arguing :p. Who are we to make a call? :)
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Re: None (singular or plural) [#permalink]

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New post 31 Jul 2011, 15:21
abhicoolmax wrote:
MGMAT SC says: Technically, none of + plural noun can take either a singular or a plural verb forms.

I think GMAT will never make you choose between A and D. I think Kaplan guys messed it up. Both A and D are correct. Whoever created this question forgot that that none is one of the SANAM pronouns and, moreover, none is still under scrutiny/debate among the big guns of Grammar.

I read a bunch of articles online on none of. This is the gist: Some people insist that since “none” is derived from “no one” it should always be singular: “none of us is having dessert.” However, in standard usage, the word is most often treated as a plural. “None of us are having dessert” will do just fine.

I highly doubt GMAT will test us on this, while all the Grammar experts are still arguing :p. Who are we to make a call? :)


More: Seems like GMAT doesn't think "none" is a SANAM pronoun. So if, in GMAT, you see "none" PREFER SINGULAR. I thing MGMAT should add this in their book.

See OG12 SC #4 vast-tides-of-migration-105900.html
Right answer is: Of all the vast tides of migration that have swept through history, perhaps none was more concentrated than the wave that brought 12 million immigrants onto American shores in little more than three decades.

This example proves my point. Anyways, whatever :). If GMAT says Singular, I will take that as true - I don't care anymore :p

If someone has a strong objection or knows a spy working undercover in GMAT, please give post your alter-thoughts :)
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Re: None (singular or plural) [#permalink]

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New post 06 Aug 2011, 16:46
Can somebody pls come up with a correct answer for everybody's sake?.
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Re: None (singular or plural) [#permalink]

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New post 06 Aug 2011, 18:34
maheshsrini wrote:
Can somebody pls come up with a correct answer for everybody's sake?.


I wrote an email to our Technical Writer at work. She has a PhD in literature and working as a Technical Writer for past 5-6 years. See her response below.

My Question to her:
---
Hey Meghan,

Sorry to bother you Meghan. I have had a question for you.

I am sure you have heard of SANAM pronouns - Some, Any, None, All, More/Most. When these pronouns act as the subject of a verb in a sentence, the verb agrees in number with the pronoun, the subject, based on the Of-prepositional phrase (with noun) that modifies the pronoun.

For instance,
All of my friends love sushi. (verb love here agrees in number with the abstract noun friends, which combined with the preposition of modifies the pronoun all)
All of the US army is alert. (verb is here agrees in number with the collective noun army, which is singular)

But with none there is HUGE controversy among the elite grammarians.

Orthodox grammarians say none is etymologically derived from the phrase "no one", hence it must be used as singular regardless of the Of-prepositional phrase that modifies it.
- None of my friends likes to eat sushi.
- None of the sugar is on the floor.
Some, not all, modern grammarian say, being a SANAM pronoun, it should have a cardinality that agrees in number with the noun in the Of-prepositional phrase that modifies it.
- None of my friends like to eat sushi.
- None of the sugar is on the floor.

I have never read a single article that has clearly stated which between the two is correct. I was hoping if you have any comment(s) or bias :-)

Thanks.

---

Her response:
---
The discussion of "none" is a long one; however, the most well-written response I found so far comes from this guy: http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-non2.htm

He states that "none" should follow the same rules as the rest of SANAM pronouns, since it can mean either "no one" (singlular) or "no persons" (plural). So you can treat it as either singular or plural based on the prepositional phrase. Based on his thorough research, I can't help but agree with him.

---

Based on the above discussion, A should be the right answer. But GMAT seems to prefer D usage - see my explanation here none-singular-or-plural-117407.html#p954852

Nobody can tell for sure, I personally think there is too much debate w.r.t. none, for GMAT to test it.
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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Vithal wrote:
None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.
(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could


The correct option needs to parallel "do not", the only option that works is D, "do".
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SV agreement error in OG SC Question. OG 13 #27 [#permalink]

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New post 09 Jan 2014, 21:05
None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.
(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could

I don't have any problem understanding the right answer. However, "None of the attempts" is a pleural subject with singular verb "explains". Can anyone please explain, is this a real error or I am missing something here.

Thanks
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Re: SV agreement error in OG SC Question. OG 13 #27 [#permalink]

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piyushjj wrote:
None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.
(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could

I don't have any problem understanding the right answer. However, "None of the attempts" is a pleural subject with singular verb "explains". Can anyone please explain, is this a real error or I am missing something here.

Thanks


'None of' is indefinite. It can either take plural or singular verb. This is a highly debated topic and GMAC stays far from such debatable rules. I have never seen an official question till date which just tests 'none of' concept. (As a matter of fact, I have never seen any of the SANAM pronouns tested on GMAT - OG 12/13, GMAT paper tests, GMATPrep and GMAT exam packs)

In addition to the rule that, 'none of' uses the object of the 'of' word in determining the number of the subject, the phrase that contains 'none of' when viewed in a 'collective term', will always be a singular subject, irrespective.
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.
(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could

ANS :
i think we can eliminate wrong answer by ||ism concept.

A. None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.
Do is not parallel to have . so this option is incorrect.

B. None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed has.
Again Do is not parallel to has . so this option is wrong .

C . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed Shall
Again Do is not parallel to Shall . so this option is wrong .

D . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed do
Again Do is not parallel to do . this is answer .

E . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed could
Again do is not parallel to could . this is wrong Answer .
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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Vithal wrote:
None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have
(B) has
(C) shall
(D) do
(E) could


Issues

(1) Meaning / Parallelism
Subject-Verb: has


The sentence uses a parallel structure to describe a puzzling phenomenon: why most of the people in one group do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those in the opposite group have.

Though the full verb structure is not repeated, the words commit crimes are understood to apply to the second half as well: most in one group do not commit crimes and many of those in the opposite group have commit crimes. That structure is incorrect; it would need to say have committed crimes. It's not permissible to repeat words with a change in the structure; rather, the exact structure, commit crimes, must be repeated.

Test the other answers. Answer (B) not only contains the same error as answer (A) but it also uses the singular has when the subject is the plural many. Eliminate answers (A) and (B).

Answers (C), (D), and (E) can all re-use the structure commit crimes in that exact form: shall commit crimes, do commit crimes, could commit crimes. The meaning of the sentence, though, is illogical in answers (C) and (E). The question is not not why some people don't commit crimes today while others shall commit crimes in the future. Not is it why some people don't commit crimes today while others could commit crimes (but do they?). The issue is why one group does not commit crimes while another group does. Eliminate answers (C) and (E) for an illogical meaning.

The Correct Answer

Correct answer (D) corrects the error by using the same verb in the same tense for the second group: do.
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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New post 13 Jan 2018, 22:34
None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have -Although both “do not commit” and “have” are present tense verbs, with “have” the past participle form of the verb is used. In this case, “done” should accompany “have”. But “done” is not present anywhere in the sentence so that it can be taken to be understood or elided. The verb in this sentence is “do” that will not go with “have”. This verb error can be rectified by replacing “have” with “do”.
(B) has -- subject-verb agreement -- many needs have ; same as A
(C) shall --Verb “shall” refers to the future tense, whereas the sentence presents a contrast in present tense.
(D) do -- Correct
(E) could --Verb “could” is in simple past tense, whereas the sentence presents a contrast in present tense.

Answer D
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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New post 31 Jan 2018, 16:33
Hi Vithal,

Thank you for your question. While this sentence is long-winded, a quick read-through shows that this is a simple comparison between two groups: people who do not commit crimes, and those who do (hint: I just gave away the answer!).

To determine which answer is correct, let’s look at how each of the answers would change the meaning of the sentence:

A: have
“Have” only considers those who committed crimes in the past, not the present. Since we’re comparing those who “do not” commit crimes, which is present tense, the other side should be in present tense too.

B: has
“Has” is a singular verb that doesn’t agree with the plural word it’s referring to (those). It also suggests comparing past crimes and present.

C: shall
“Shall” means they are comparing present tense with future tense, which isn’t parallel.

D: do
“Do” is correct! It uses parallel structure (do not commit crimes…those who do) and both are in present tense.

E: could
“Could” changes the meaning from discussing people who DO commit crimes with people who MIGHT, which is different.

So if we look at parallel structure (do not / do) and consistent verb tense, D is the clear winner!
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most   [#permalink] 31 Jan 2018, 16:33
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