Lucky1994
MentorTutoring daaghHello experts,
I agree to option B as an answer but can you please tell me why option C is wrong?
(would)favor Pakistan by 10:1 odds and (would) be quite wrong
I assumed that generally "would be" is also correct.
Please advise.
Hello,
Lucky1994. Thank you for tagging me. I would be happy to offer my thoughts on the matter. Looking at the shell of the sentence, we understand that the match in question has already occurred. The point of the sentence is to suggest that such a bettor, going by the numbers,
would have made the wrong prediction. Without the last part, the one that suggests an outcome in the word
wrong, there would be no way to disprove choice (C). Consider,
A bettor trying to predict the outcome of the one-day Cricket World Cup match in 1996 between the experienced Pakistan team and the unheralded Bangladesh squad probably would...A bettor could predict that Team A would defeat Team B--that is, if we were in 1996--but then what are we to make of
and be quite wrong, unless the outcome were already known? Otherwise, would we be saying that it was morally wrong to make a prediction? That the 10:1 odds should be something else? The mind races. But in (B), there is a logical connection to that outcome, the bettor who had placed 10:1 odds in favor of Pakistan
would have been wrong, since the match went the other way.
I say this all the time, but it is worth repeating: On many more difficult SC questions, there is often no real grammatical reason to get rid of an answer choice, but what separates the correct answer from the incorrect ones comes down to meaning. That should be your prime consideration, and here, only choice (B) makes sense in the context of the sentence.
- Andrew