generis
When new laws imposing strict penalties for misleading corporate disclosures were passed, they were hailed as initiating an era of corporate openness. As an additional benefit, given the increased amount and accuracy of information disclosed under the new laws, it was assumed that analysts' predictions of corporate performance would become more accurate. Since the passage of the laws, however, the number of inaccurate analysts' predictions has not in fact decreased.
Which of the following would, if true, best explain the discrepancy outlined above?
A) The new laws' definition of “misleading information” can be interpreted in more than one way.
B) The new laws require corporations in all industries to release information at specific times of the year.
C) Even before the new laws were passed, the information most corporations released was true.
D) Analysts base their predictions on information they gather from many sources, not just corporate disclosures.
E) The more pieces of information corporations release, the more difficult it becomes for anyone to organize them in a manageable way.
CR56601.02
Following this discussion, I believe the real issue is between D and E now. Argument is, if we have to make assumptions to get the question correct, we can do it for either D or E. So why is only E right? I think i can help.
Let us see the assumptions we have to make to get each of these options right:
Quote:
D) Analysts base their predictions on information they gather from many sources, not just corporate disclosures.
To make this option right anwer, we have to assume that one of the (or many) other sources must have reduced in their accuracy. And this can explain the descripancy.
Quote:
E) The more pieces of information corporations release, the more difficult it becomes for anyone to organize them in a manageable way.
To make this option the right option, we have to assume that the increase in difficulty to organize WILL translate into not being able to BETTER organize (Read question again, it says: number of inaccurate analysts' predictions has
not in fact decreased (this means, the accuracy either has remained same or has gooten worse).
Now, both seem reasonable. In such a scenario, we have to see which assumption of ours is less biased and hence more likely.
For the assumption in option D, we are assuming that one of the (or many) other sources must have reduced in their accuracy. But is there any support in the options that helps us to go this route? Nope! We just assumed it because we wanted to prove this option correct. One could similarly assume that the accuracy of these sources actually increased and hence claim the option to be incorrect. So, our position here is a bit weak and biased.
Now, for the assumption in option E, do we have any support? A weak support but yes it is there! It says "
the more difficult it becomes for anyone to organize them". This essentially says things are becoming more difficult. Therefore, we defientely can not expect something good out of it. At best case, things will remain same, but at worst the accuracy will fall. It is in line with what we expect. So this support gives us a few brownie points here. Hence correct option is E.
Hope it helps.