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IMO E.

Other options go beyond the scope.
Could someone please explain the meaning of below phrases. I did not know the meaning and initially felt that the question was very difficult.

to seek reelection - does this mean that the incumbent seeks for reelection after he has lost one?
returned to office - :(
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I picked A and could not quite understand why it was E. Can anyone explain, please
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Thanks for the answer. The reason why I had a hard time was the meaning of E. I could not quite understand what it is saying. And I found this


(E) When major political scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than of the parties to which they belong,(scandal is blamed on the party, not the incumbent) whatever party was responsible must be penalized when possible (but if both are responsible then the incumbent will not necessarily be penalized).

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The argument says that when all parties are involved in the scandal no particular member of any party suffers the consequences but when a single party is involved the incumbents belonging to that party suffers defeat in the hand of the challengers."E" says that an incumbent is the member of a party. If the party is scandalised it does not imply each and every single incumbent is involved in the scandal or vice versa if the incumbent is to be blamed for the scandal then since the incumbent is the part of a party the whole party takes the responsibility.
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My 2 cents:
Whole (party scandal) ----x---> Party’s individual members
Individual member (scandal) ---> Party’s ALL members
So what happens to whole DOES NOT impact the part i.e. individual members BUT what happens to part DOES impact the whole i.e. ALL the members of party.
ONLY E resembles this condition!!!
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Question: All Parties (whole) blamed --> incumbents (Parts) OK

Ask: Find answer that contrast with the question.

Answer E: Incumbents (Part)blamed --> Parties (whole) NOT OK.

(because E indicates that even Incumbent is less responsible for scandal the party still gets punished. In short, as long as incumbent is involved the party gets punished.)

Just trying to explain from own understanding, is my logic correct?
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NNURP
Question: All Parties (whole) blamed --> incumbents (Parts) OK

Ask: Find answer that contrast with the question.

Answer E: Incumbents (Part)blamed --> Parties (whole) NOT OK.

(because E indicates that even Incumbent is less responsible for scandal the party still gets punished. In short, as long as incumbent is involved the party gets punished.)

Just trying to explain from own understanding, is my logic correct?

Quote:
(E) When major political scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than of the parties to which they belong, whatever party was responsible must be penalized when possible.

Hi NNURP, I'm not sure I follow your logic, but see if this helps:

Apply the principle described in choice (E) to the scenario where the incumbent's party--Party X, for example--receives all of the blame: in that case, Party X can easily be penalized by voting for someone in Party Y or Party Z (I think this is what you mean when you say, "as long as incumbent is involved the party gets punished").

Now imagine that the incumbent belongs to Party X but Parties X, Y, and Z all receive equal blame: if we follow the principle in statement (E), we should penalize ALL parties. If we vote for someone in Party Y or Z, one of those parties is rewarded while party X is penalized. There is no way to penalize all parties equally since a member of one of the parties has to win. In that case, the voters might just stick with the default option (the incumbent).
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This is a pretty wacky question, but we're basically looking for a principle that explains why incumbents generally are reelected when voters blame a scandal on all parties equally, while incumbents from a particular party usually are defeated when voters blame that party specifically for the scandal.

Looking at this one, I found the correct answer to be less than fully satisfying, but I knew I'd gotten it because I made sure to work from wrong to right. Let's see if we can definitively get rid of four wrong answers.

(A) is out of scope. We care about what happens when a political party is blamed for a scandal, not about what happens if two individual incumbents are equally to blame for something.

(B) is likewise out of scope. Accuracy of judgments has nothing to do with the stimulus, and this answer choice doesn't explain why voters vote the way they do.

(C) is out because the stimulus never touches on whether incumbents should seek reelection; further, the statements are about when a party, not an individual, is blamed.

(D) is out because the statements never suggest that the identity of the challenger is significant.

So that leaves us with (E). It may look a little funky, but it gets us where we need to go: when major political scandals are blamed on a particular party, that party must be penalized, i.e., its incumbents must suffer. This explains the voter behavior outlined in the stimulus.

Answer is E
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manishtank1988
My 2 cents:
Whole (party scandal) ----x---> Party’s individual members
Individual member (scandal) ---> Party’s ALL members
So what happens to whole DOES NOT impact the part i.e. individual members BUT what happens to part DOES impact the whole i.e. ALL the members of party.
ONLY E resembles this condition!!!


This is why I chose this answer so confidently. The paradox is between the political parties not the politicians of the political parties.
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Dear IanStewart

I would be much grateful if you could help me with the following excerpt of E: “major political scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than of the parties to which they belong”

Is this another way of saying “individual incumbents are less responsible for the scandal than are parties” ?
The wording of the excerpt is quite confusing and I don’t get how it means what it means. Could you please check whether I am doing a correct analogue?

She is my colleague. She is also my friend.
She is more my friend than she is my colleague.
Or: She is less my colleague than she is my friend.

Scandals are the responsibility of individual incumbents. Scandals are also the responsibility of parties.
Scandals are more the responsibility of parties than they are of individual incumbents.
Or: Scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than they are of parties.

Am I on the right track?
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JonShukhrat
Dear IanStewart

I would be much grateful if you could help me with the following excerpt of E: “major political scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than of the parties to which they belong”

You could imagine, in a political context, at least three possible situations:

- an individual politician (an 'incumbent', when the next election comes up) is responsible for a scandal -- maybe he or she stole taxpayer money to buy a yacht

- an individual party is responsible for a scandal -- maybe the party fundraised promising to run election advertising but instead funded an expensive party conference on a distant island paradise

- all parties are responsible for a scandal -- maybe every party has been breaking a law that forbids advertising during children's television programming

When answer E talks about scandals that are more the responsibility of a party than of an individual, answer E is ruling out the first possible case above. Answer E is outlining a principle that only applies when a scandal is attributable to a party, rather than to an individual person. If I understood correctly your post, that's the meaning you took from it, so I think yes, you were on the right track.

Incidentally, that's the key to answering this question quickly. The stem only talks about scandals that can be attributed either to one party, or to all parties. It never even discusses scandals that can be attributed to a single individual. So whatever principle voters are using here, it must be one that covers the case where a party or parties are responsible for a scandal. Any answer that describes what voters do when individuals are responsible for scandals is immediately wrong. That only leaves answer E, and maybe answer D, but D is clearly wrong because we know that when a party is responsible for a scandal, voters do not care at all "who the challenger is" to an incumbent in the scandal-ridden party -- voters will pick the challenger.

I still don't think E is a perfect answer, however. We're asked for a principle that explains the 'contrast' outlined in the stem, a contrast between voting behaviours in two different situations. Answer E certainly explains why voters pick challengers when an incumbent belongs to a scandal-ridden party. But it doesn't explain well the part of the stem that is more surprising: why do incumbents almost always win when there is a major political scandal involving all parties? That's the part of the stem that seems to need explanation to me (if politics is full of scandal, I'd think voters would be more likely to vote for new people), but answer E doesn't help explain that at all, and the question does ask us to explain it, so no answer is great here. But E is the only answer that's even remotely relevant to the stem, and it explains half of the contrast, so it's clearly the best answer.

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Dear IanStewart

I would be much grateful if you could help me with the following excerpt of E: “major political scandals are less the responsibility of individual incumbents than of the parties to which they belong”

You could imagine, in a political context, at least three possible situations:

- an individual politician (an 'incumbent', when the next election comes up) is responsible for a scandal -- maybe he or she stole taxpayer money to buy a yacht

- an individual party is responsible for a scandal -- maybe the party fundraised promising to run election advertising but instead funded an expensive party conference on a distant island paradise

- all parties are responsible for a scandal -- maybe every party has been breaking a law that forbids advertising during children's television programming

When answer E talks about scandals that are more the responsibility of a party than of an individual, answer E is ruling out the first possible case above. Answer E is outlining a principle that only applies when a scandal is attributable to a party, rather than to an individual person. If I understood correctly your post, that's the meaning you took from it, so I think yes, you were on the right track.

Incidentally, that's the key to answering this question quickly. The stem only talks about scandals that can be attributed either to one party, or to all parties. It never even discusses scandals that can be attributed to a single individual. So whatever principle voters are using here, it must be one that covers the case where a party or parties are responsible for a scandal. Any answer that describes what voters do when individuals are responsible for scandals is immediately wrong. That only leaves answer E, and maybe answer D, but D is clearly wrong because we know that when a party is responsible for a scandal, voters do not care at all "who the challenger is" to an incumbent in the scandal-ridden party -- voters will pick the challenger.

I still don't think E is a perfect answer, however. We're asked for a principle that explains the 'contrast' outlined in the stem, a contrast between voting behaviours in two different situations. Answer E certainly explains why voters pick challengers when an incumbent belongs to a scandal-ridden party. But it doesn't explain well the part of the stem that is more surprising: why do incumbents almost always win when there is a major political scandal involving all parties? That's the part of the stem that seems to need explanation to me (if politics is full of scandal, I'd think voters would be more likely to vote for new people), but answer E doesn't help explain that at all, and the question does ask us to explain it, so no answer is great here. But E is the only answer that's even remotely relevant to the stem, and it explains half of the contrast, so it's clearly the best answer.

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Hey IanStewart, when I read option D, I thought it made sense particularly because of the part that says "who their challengers are.". If the challengers are also scandalous, the voters just let the incumbents be. If the challengers are not scandalous, the voters vote the incumbents out. Although far from perfect, option D seems to touch on both the situations.

It would be interesting to know what you think. I truly appreciate your no-BS posts across forum! :)
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Hey IanStewart, when I read option D, I thought it made sense particularly because of the part that says "who their challengers are.". If the challengers are also scandalous, the voters just let the incumbents be. If the challengers are not scandalous, the voters vote the incumbents out. Although far from perfect, option D seems to touch on both the situations.

It would be interesting to know what you think. I truly appreciate your no-BS posts across forum! :)

I do see what you mean, and if it were reworded slightly, D might be an answer worth considering here. But I think it's important to distinguish between two situations in this question: the situation where a scandal is blamed on one or more political parties (that's the only situation discussed in the stem) and the situation where a scandal is blamed on a single person, for example the 'incumbent' described in answer D. As worded, answer D can't explain the behaviour in the stem, because answer D doesn't tell us anything about how voters respond when scandals are blamed on one party, or on several parties -- it only describes how voters respond when a scandal is blamed on a single person. If D instead said something like "the incumbent's party can always be blamed, at least in part, for any scandal, and since voters only vote for scandalous parties when they can't avoid it, the identity of the challenger matters" then D would at least explain half of the stem.

Notice that answer E instead focuses on the correct situation: the situation where the party, not the person, is responsible for the scandal. But as I said above, I still don't think any answer choice is perfect here, because no answer explains the most surprising behaviour described in the stem (why incumbents always win when everyone is embroiled in scandal).
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As per E When incumbents responsibility for political scandal < party responsibility for political scandal => Party must be penalized
when one party is blamed specifically, the individual incumbents are affected as people will not choose them and they have an option to choose folks from other parties.
But when party is blamed equally , you cant penalize all parties as someone must be elected. So we are forced to pick an incumbent from some party
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