2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
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# 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000

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13 Jun 2015, 17:32
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2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
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13 Jun 2015, 23:12
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LithiumIon wrote:
2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

Let's look at the structure here-

"the more coffee these doctors drank, more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

As the second part of the structure refers to 'likelihood', we need 'greater'. 'greater' is used when the noun is a number. For example: percentage, rate, likelihood, distance and population.

Also, 'likelihood' means 'the probability of a specified outcome'. Thus, it's imprecise to say they had a likelihood/probability of coronary disease. The correct usage should be "likelihood of having coronary disease'.

E goes out as it distorts the meaning. 'likelihood' was greater, NOT the disease.

This leaves us with D.

Happy Prepping! :D

Dolly Sharma
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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14 Sep 2015, 06:13
"the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

we can eliminate A because of improper past perfect tense.
(C) the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
first part is in past tense, the conditional + present perfect tense they would have a likelihood........correct me if I'm wrong
(E) greater was coronary disease likely...............terrible construction

left options
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease

Quote:
'likelihood' was greater, NOT the disease. As the second part of the structure refers to 'likelihood', we need 'greater'. 'greater' is used when the noun is a number. For example: percentage, rate, likelihood, distance and population.

Also, 'likelihood' means 'the probability of a specified outcome'. Thus, it's imprecise to say they had a likelihood/probability of coronary disease. The correct usage should be "likelihood of having coronary disease'.

Dolly your argument seems good. However I cant understand why we cant use more for greater?
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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14 Sep 2015, 09:34
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indicates means probably, conditional.
in option C they would have conditional used is redundant.

here more the coffee noun used . likelihood is noun.

in opiton E no noun is there , likely adjective is used.

more coffee the doctors drank is a phrase when you compare we have to use a phrase.

In option A clause is used . Moreover, they had past perfect is used.

Now we left with B and D, both more and greater are comparative adjectives.

now more is used for additional , greater is used for larger importance such as colossal, gigantic.

here chances of having coronary disease. so option B wins.

Likelihood of is idiomatic, likelihood to is unidiomatic..

so option B wins.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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17 Sep 2015, 05:05
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DollySharma wrote:
LithiumIon wrote:
2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

Let's look at the structure here-

"the more coffee these doctors drank, more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

As the second part of the structure refers to 'likelihood', we need 'greater'. 'greater' is used when the noun is a number. For example: percentage, rate, likelihood, distance and population.

Also, 'likelihood' means 'the probability of a specified outcome'. Thus, it's imprecise to say they had a likelihood/probability of coronary disease. The correct usage should be "likelihood of having coronary disease'.

E goes out as it distorts the meaning. 'likelihood' was greater, NOT the disease.

This leaves us with D.

Happy Prepping! :D

Dolly Sharma

Although your answer is correct, some of your explanations are not accurate based on Manhattan GMAT book. GREATER is actually used for uncountable things, NUMEROUS or MORE NUMEROUS is used for countable items. Here "likelihood" is not countable. The likelihood of having coronary disease is higher for those who drink certain amount of coffee.

Pls check the MGMAT Sentence correction book, pg. 200. for greater details
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Countable vs. Uncountable.JPG [ 57.7 KiB | Viewed 13511 times ]

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2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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17 Sep 2015, 05:15
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After searching more about greater vs. more...I found the below explanation in Magoosh we site. And I am sorry DollySharma for quick judgement.

more vs. greater

When something countable increases, we use “more”

1) Holland has more tulips than does any other country in Western Europe.

Tulips are separate: you can count how many tulips you have.

When something uncountable increases, we also use also “more”

2) The US State of Georgia has more land than does the state of Pennsylvania.

3) It costs more to go to the ballgame than to go to the opera.

Land is an uncountable noun, and in #3, the implicit noun is “money”, which is also uncountable.

The question arises: when do we use “greater” rather than “more”? We use “greater” when the noun in question is a number. We can count the number of tulips, but a tulip itself is not a number. Some examples of nouns that are themselves numbers are: percent, interest rate, population, volume, distance, price, cost, and number.

4) The area of Georgia is greater than that of Pennsylvania.

5) The price of a trip to the ballgame is greater than the cost of a night at the opera.

6) Call option premia are greater when interest rates are higher.

(Notice, for certain economic quantities, we will use “higher” for an increase.) In general, things take “more” but numbers take “greater.” The “increasing” case is the easier of the two cases.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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17 Sep 2015, 09:03
I am wondering if the actual issue here not about more vs greater. OG has the following explanation for A:

It obscures the intended correlation between coffee and likelihood. The phrase "the more they had likelihood" somewhat illogically indicates that the research subjects had a likelihood to a greater degree rather than that their likelihood was greater.

Seems quite subtle. Does anyone know how to interpret this explanation?
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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17 Sep 2015, 22:43
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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27 Sep 2015, 06:03
Hello sukanyar
Let me try ,

More coffee increases the likelihood of coronary disease.
Please note that likelihood is not a countable thing. However likelihood can also be expressed in terms of number or probability.Percentage is a countable entity.
Ex: The likelihood of scoring 800 in GMAT is 2% .

Now look at the Options:
Likelihood is expressed as a relative increase in percentage .So options [A],[B],[C] are ruled out.

Options [D] and [E] :
E distorts the meaning . D is the correct answer.
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2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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27 Sep 2015, 06:48
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My simple feeling is that when we use mass nouns or abstract nouns that are taken as in-disparate or inseparable, then we have to use ‘greater’. To wit

This year’s flood damage is greater than last year’s. --- One cannot count damage.
India has greater prosperity than many neighbors.

Isn’t likelihood something that cannot be counted as one likelihood or two likelihoods?

Therefore ‘greater’ is the more appropriate word in the context.
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Last edited by daagh on 27 Sep 2015, 21:53, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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27 Sep 2015, 21:17
I agree with the answer D.

Greater is used for comparing two things.

the sentence meant that comparison is between the ppl who drank lot of coffee and who drank less coffee.

I admit, at the first shot I picked B as it is parallelims question.

I have to be more careful.

LithiumIon wrote:
2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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Hello dear colleagues..) I picked the right answer, but it was just a guess, it just looked better for me, but here is an explanation for More VS Greater from a GMAT Expert (Beatthegmat).

the following rule will work in the vast majority of cases:
* if you are dealing with a word that literally describes a numerical quantity (number, rate, height, length, volume, population, etc.), then you should use “greater”.
The population of Colombia is greater than that of Argentina --> correct
The population of Colombia is more than that of Argentina --> incorrect

* if you are dealing with a word that describes some abstract characteristic of something (power, influence, effect, etc.), then you can use “a/an + greater” or "more" (the latter WITHOUT 'a/an').
John's father has had a greater influence on the development of his personality than has his mother. --> correct
The Prime Minister has more power than the King, even though the latter is the country's titular leader. --> correct

* if you are dealing with a word that describes things that you can actually count, then you should use “more”.
I have more sports jerseys than anyone else I know --> correct

* if you are dealing with an uncountable noun that is NOT a numerical quantity, then you should use “more”.
there is more furniture in this store than in the other one --> correct

(http://www.beatthegmat.com/greater-vs-m ... tml#381739)
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2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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04 Mar 2016, 06:46
Guys,

Give the concrete explanation than justifying the correct answer choice. OG 's explanation may be suitable for this question only. But it is still not clear when to use greater Vs More.

I see in MGMAT SC 6th EDITION, page 69. GREAT can be used for uncountable modifiers. But at the same time, it is also said that more, most, enough and all work with both countable ( plural ) and uncountable ( singular ) nouns. When the choices are between greater and more atleast for me is still a puzzle, as I still think "likelihood" as uncountable modifier and both more & greater can be used.

Here is what I think, on "likelihood"

A. likelihood is not a numerical quantity like, length, rate, population, number etc.. [ I dont know whether I need to include probability to justify it as a number ]
greater can be used here " The population of Colombia is greater than that of Argentina " Courtesy - beatthegmat
Here more is preferred for likelihood.

B. likelihood is like nouns that are uncountable like patience, influence, courage, water [ can be measurable not countable ], greed, anger, money.
The Etruscans had raised an army in which each soldier had selected another, and they fought with greater forces, and greater courage, than ever before.
Courtesy : Romes Italian Wars, page 214.
Here also we used greater. So in both A and B we are using greater.
Here greater is preferred for likelihood.

I am not a expert here taking snail steps to catch up the clarity. Expert comments are needed

Last edited by dharan on 04 Mar 2016, 07:57, edited 1 time in total.
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04 Mar 2016, 07:47
nice one
likelihood is greater not more

this point is cornerstone of gmat sc, meaning /logic test.

similarly
scientists' ability is accurate
is wrong in our real world.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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05 Apr 2016, 06:47
Copied From BTG...

A: the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had
C: the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they would have
Here, these doctors drank is an ADJECTIVE serving to describe coffee.
What KIND of coffee?
coffee THESE DOCTORS DRANK.
Thus, coffee these doctors drank = NOUN + MODIFIER.
But each of the portions in red consists of SUBJECT + VERB.
Result:
NOUN + MODIFIER (coffee these doctors drank) and SUBJECT + VERB (the two portions in red) are not parallel.
Eliminate A and C.

B: the more was their likelihood
Here, more seems to refer to likelihood.
likelihood = probability = a NUMBER.
A number cannot be MORE.
A number can only be GREATER.
Eliminate B.

E: the greater was coronary disease
Here, greater seems to refer to coronary disease, implying that CORONARY DISEASE was GREATER.
Not the intended meaning.
The intended meaning is that the LIKELIHOOD of coronary disease was greater.
Eliminate E.
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2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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05 Apr 2016, 10:18
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dharan wrote:
Guys,

Give the concrete explanation than justifying the correct answer choice. OG 's explanation may be suitable for this question only. But it is still not clear when to use greater Vs More.

I see in MGMAT SC 6th EDITION, page 69. GREAT can be used for uncountable modifiers. But at the same time, it is also said that more, most, enough and all work with both countable ( plural ) and uncountable ( singular ) nouns. When the choices are between greater and more atleast for me is still a puzzle, as I still think "likelihood" as uncountable modifier and both more & greater can be used.

Here is what I think, on "likelihood"

A. likelihood is not a numerical quantity like, length, rate, population, number etc.. [ I dont know whether I need to include probability to justify it as a number ]
greater can be used here " The population of Colombia is greater than that of Argentina " Courtesy - beatthegmat
Here more is preferred for likelihood.

B. likelihood is like nouns that are uncountable like patience, influence, courage, water [ can be measurable not countable ], greed, anger, money.
The Etruscans had raised an army in which each soldier had selected another, and they fought with greater forces, and greater courage, than ever before.
Courtesy : Romes Italian Wars, page 214.
Here also we used greater. So in both A and B we are using greater.
Here greater is preferred for likelihood.

I am not a expert here taking snail steps to catch up the clarity. Expert comments are needed

After going through various suggestions by GMAT experts at Magoosh and Manhattan, I could arrive at the following conclusion:

The positive....comparative...superlative forms of certain adjectives of quantity are as follows:

set 1. many...more...most
set 2. much...more....most
set 3. great...greater...greatest

While set 1 (many...more...most) is used for countable nouns, set 2 (much...more....most) and set 3 (great...greater...greatest) are used for uncountable nouns.

Now there could be 2 types of uncountable nouns
type a. Quantity word / numbers themselves (e.g. price, volume, weight, probability etc.) are uncountable.
type b. Other uncountable nouns (honesty, poverty, etc as you mentioned)

The set 2 (much...more....most) is used for type b (other uncountable nouns) uncountable nouns.
The set 3 ( great...greater...greatest) is used for type a (Quantity word / numbers) uncountable nouns.

Therefore we see that "more" can be used for (i) countable nouns and (ii) uncountable nouns that are not quantity words/ numbers.
"Greater" can be used for (iii) uncountable nouns that are quantity words/ numbers.
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2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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28 Jun 2016, 23:08
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DollySharma wrote:
LithiumIon wrote:
2016 GMAT Official Guide, Question 10, Pg. 675

A long-term study of some 1,000 physicians indicates that the more coffee these doctors drank, the more they had a likelihood of coronary disease.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease
(E) greater was coronary disease likely

Let's look at the structure here-

"the more coffee these doctors drank, more they had a likelihood of coronary disease

As the second part of the structure refers to 'likelihood', we need 'greater'. 'greater' is used when the noun is a number. For example: percentage, rate, likelihood, distance and population.

Also, 'likelihood' means 'the probability of a specified outcome'. Thus, it's imprecise to say they had a likelihood/probability of coronary disease. The correct usage should be "likelihood of having coronary disease'.

E goes out as it distorts the meaning. 'likelihood' was greater, NOT the disease.

This leaves us with D.

Happy Prepping! :D

Dolly Sharma

You are totally wrong.

Likelihood is "Uncountable and Singular" (There is no exception to this rule)

A simillar synonym of "Likelihood" used in probality is "Chance". Chance is both countable and Uncountable (hence by extension, it is both singular and plural)

Chance is countable :- There is a 10% chance of rain.// There are slim chances of Germany beating Brazil in the soccer match.
Chance is uncountable :- I met her by chance. / Chess is a game of strategy, not chance.

The correct way to figure the answer to this question is by using idioms and tenses and countable/uncountable rules for nouns.

(A) more they had a likelihood of coronary disease => Likelihood uncountable hence "MORE is incorrect" HAD is incorrect tense
(B) more was their likelihood of having coronary disease ==>Likelihood uncountable hence "MORE is incorrect"
(C) more they would have a likelihood to have coronary disease==>Likelihood uncountable hence "MORE is incorrect" "WOULD is wrong tense" "likelihood to is wrong Idiom "
(D) greater was their likelihood of having coronary disease==> "Likelihood of" correct idiom "Having is the correct tense" CORRECT
(E) greater was coronary disease likely==>All sorts of problems
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Last edited by LogicGuru1 on 21 Jul 2016, 22:35, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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21 Jul 2016, 16:23
Hello daagh / sayantanc2k / other experts,

Now that the "greater" debate seems to be settled, can you shed some light on the parallelism structure in this question?

In the OA, we have the following structure -
"the+comparative+noun(obj)+ subj +verb" v/s "the+comparative+verb+subj+modifier"

Specifically, can we interpret it as follows -
"the + comparative + clause 1" needs to be parallel with "the + comparative + clause 2", in that the clauses within the structure need not be parallel. Is this a correct interpretation?

As a general principle, do clause structures need to be parallel within other parallel markets, such as "not only..but also", "not..but", etc?

Thanks!
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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22 Jul 2016, 12:33
abhishek1912 wrote:
Hello daagh / sayantanc2k / other experts,

Now that the "greater" debate seems to be settled, can you shed some light on the parallelism structure in this question?

In the OA, we have the following structure -
"the+comparative+noun(obj)+ subj +verb" v/s "the+comparative+verb+subj+modifier"

Specifically, can we interpret it as follows -
"the + comparative + clause 1" needs to be parallel with "the + comparative + clause 2", in that the clauses within the structure need not be parallel. Is this a correct interpretation?

As a general principle, do clause structures need to be parallel within other parallel markets, such as "not only..but also", "not..but", etc?

Thanks!

I have not come across any authentic source that states that two clauses are not parallel if their structures are different - just being clauses is reason enough to qualify them to be parallel.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000 [#permalink]

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22 Jul 2016, 14:06
abhishek1912 wrote:
Hello daagh / sayantanc2k / other experts,

Now that the "greater" debate seems to be settled, can you shed some light on the parallelism structure in this question?

In the OA, we have the following structure -
"the+comparative+noun(obj)+ subj +verb" v/s "the+comparative+verb+subj+modifier"

Specifically, can we interpret it as follows -
"the + comparative + clause 1" needs to be parallel with "the + comparative + clause 2", in that the clauses within the structure need not be parallel. Is this a correct interpretation?

As a general principle, do clause structures need to be parallel within other parallel markets, such as "not only..but also", "not..but", etc?

Thanks!

The moment you split a sentence into different clauses using a proper coordinating or subordinating conjunction , you can have any possible permutation combination of grammatical composition on each one of them. The style of grammatical composition can vary and is infact of the main hidden weapon in GMAT Reading comprehension passages where sometimes a single sentence seems to have many different tenses and styles.
Anyway here is a plain but valid and correct example

She completed her literature review, but she still needs to work a lot on her math skills even though she is appearing for her final exam in next 2 days.
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Re: 2016 OG Q10 - A long-term study of some 1,000   [#permalink] 22 Jul 2016, 14:06

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