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07 Aug 2016, 04:08
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B
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
95%
(hard)
Question Stats:
29% (02:14) correct
71%
(02:28)
wrong
based on 704
sessions
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Academics in theology departments generally agree that there are fewer religious people today than fifty years ago. There are two primary critiques of that view, however. First, the conclusion depends on a definition that is highly subject to debate. If “religion” is defined as a strongly held conviction about the purpose of the world, for instance, the academics may be incorrect. On the other hand, the conclusion would be justified if "religion" is defined as a belief in a supernatural god. Second, the academics base their conclusion almost exclusively on data collected from the western hemisphere.
Which of the following, if assumed, strengthens the conclusion of the academics?
A) The definition of "religion" was as highly subject to debate fifty years ago as it is today
B) The conclusion applied only to the western hemisphere
C) Academics often draw conclusions based on evidence based almost exclusively on data from the western hemisphere
D) Most people believe "religion" should be defined as a belief in a supernatural god
E) Fewer people believe in a supernatural god today than fifty years ago
Which of the following, if assumed, strengthens the conclusion of the academics?
A) The definition of "religion" was as highly subject to debate fifty years ago as it is today
B) The conclusion applied only to the western hemisphere
C) Academics often draw conclusions based on evidence based almost exclusively on data from the western hemisphere
D) Most people believe "religion" should be defined as a belief in a supernatural god
E) Fewer people believe in a supernatural god today than fifty years ago
Don't understand how B is the answer. I thought B weakens.
07 Aug 2016, 23:50
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The argument says Second, the academics base their conclusion almost exclusively on data collected from the western hemisphere.
If we get support that this study is only based for western hemisphere and not for the whole globe, then the argument is surely strengthened.
Data is collected from the western hemisphere and if the conclusion drawn is for the whole globe, then surely the conclusion is wrong. If the conclusion is for the western hemisphere only, then the conclusion stands strong.
Hope it is clear now.
If we get support that this study is only based for western hemisphere and not for the whole globe, then the argument is surely strengthened.
Data is collected from the western hemisphere and if the conclusion drawn is for the whole globe, then surely the conclusion is wrong. If the conclusion is for the western hemisphere only, then the conclusion stands strong.
Hope it is clear now.
09 Aug 2016, 20:34
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Um... I'm kind of lost as well. What's the source?
I mean, the preface is "Academics in theology departments generally agree that there are fewer religious people today than fifty years ago" in specifically broad terms.
The OA is basically admitting that "there may not be fewer religious people overall IF we add the Eastern continent to the mix". Isn't this potentially the exact opposite of the conclusion = there are fewer religious people [in general]?
I think it should be something like:
[ Academics in theology departments generally agree that in some parts of the world there are fewer religious people today than fifty years ago. There are two primary critiques of that view, however. First, the conclusion depends on a definition that is highly subject to debate. If “religion” is defined as a strongly held conviction about the purpose of the world, for instance, the academics may be incorrect. On the other hand, the conclusion would be justified if "religion" is defined as a belief in a supernatural god. Second, the academics base their conclusion almost exclusively on data collected from the western hemisphere. ]
Just my two cents.
I mean, the preface is "Academics in theology departments generally agree that there are fewer religious people today than fifty years ago" in specifically broad terms.
The OA is basically admitting that "there may not be fewer religious people overall IF we add the Eastern continent to the mix". Isn't this potentially the exact opposite of the conclusion = there are fewer religious people [in general]?
I think it should be something like:
[ Academics in theology departments generally agree that in some parts of the world there are fewer religious people today than fifty years ago. There are two primary critiques of that view, however. First, the conclusion depends on a definition that is highly subject to debate. If “religion” is defined as a strongly held conviction about the purpose of the world, for instance, the academics may be incorrect. On the other hand, the conclusion would be justified if "religion" is defined as a belief in a supernatural god. Second, the academics base their conclusion almost exclusively on data collected from the western hemisphere. ]
Just my two cents.
