Niha01
GMATNinja how is 'they' in option A different from the rule that pronoun of second clause unambiguously refers to the subject of the first clause as I understood from one of your webinars.
First, there's no ironclad rule about pronoun ambiguity, so you want to avoid using this as a reason to eliminate an answer choice. That said, this construction is a little different than the one referenced in
the webinar.
Take another look at the relevant portion of (A):
Quote:
Because
there are provisions of the new maritime code....
they have already stimulated international disputes over uninhabited islands.
The first clause begins with "there," one of those funky pronouns that don't have a referent. This wasn't the case in the other example. Now, you could say that "there" is simply a placeholder for the real subject, "provisions," and "they" must refer to those "provisions".
But this interpretation leads to a logical problem, as the sentence, in essence, becomes, "Because there are provisions...the provisions have already stimulated disputes." That's nonsense. I can write that because the provisions
do one thing, the provisions also do something else as a consequence. But I can't write that because the provisions
exist, the provisions do something as a consequence. So while I wouldn't feel confident getting rid of (A) on account of pronoun ambiguity, I'm perfectly happy to get rid of it because the meaning is incoherent.
The takeaway: pronoun ambiguity = very low priority; illogical meaning = very high priority.
I hope that helps!