warriorguy
Hello Team,
I have a query related to option A. I selected the correct answer based on PoE. In option A, we have ???ing verb used correctly to depict the result of some action i.e. the result of melting of ice cap. My query is for the verb tense. Why is ???were to???
considered correct in this sentence? Shouldn???t we be using, ideally, would in this scenario to depict something that happened in the future from past perspective?
I think I agree with everything you've said here,
warriorguy! Process of elimination should lead you to the right answer, even if you think "were to be" sounds ridiculous, or isn't an ideal form of the verb. You're always looking for four wrong answers -- and you've found them, so (A) must be correct. And that's the right way to approach everything on SC.
I also agree that "would be occupied" or "would later be occupied" or even "were later occupied" would be decent alternatives to "were to be occupied." But there's nothing wrong with "were to be": it's just another way to express the future from the
vantage point of the past. Technically, I think it's a form of the past subjunctive that's almost never used in modern American English, so it sounds a little bit archaic to us. I'd never use it in real life, but it's not wrong.
In my opinion, (A) "sounds bad" in its current form, but sound NEVER matters. It's still the right answer, even if it sounds like hot garbage.
I hope this helps!
Pls help with below doubt - Both A and B answer choice has A. Began to melt and B. began melting to uncover -
Why is the logic of purpose only applicable in B and not in A .