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Zhuangzi had an interpretation of Daoism that was highly imaginative, but in terms of a lasting impact on the course of Chinese civilization this was not as influential as the interpretation of Confucianism of Mengzi, who was his contemporary.

(A) Zhuangzi had an interpretation of Daoism that was highly imaginative, but in terms of a lasting impact on the course of Chinese civilization this was not as influential as the interpretation of Confucianism of Mengzi, who was his contemporary

(B) Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism had a lasting impact on the course of Chinese civilization, whereas his contemporary Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not do this

(C) Zhuangzi had a highly imaginative interpretation of Daoism, but this interpretation had less of an impact on the course of Chinese civilization than his contemporary Mengzi, whose interpretation of Confucianism was more influential

(D) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as had his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism

(E) In terms of lasting impact, Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism influenced Chinese civilization more than the highly imaginative interpretation of Daoism by Mengzi’s contemporary Zhuangzi


This is a very complicated comparison SC question, the sort that the GMAT might give you. How does one approach such questions? For three more questions of this sort, as well as the OE for this question, see:
Challenging Comparison Questions on the GMAT

Mike :-)

This is very complicated; the thing about D is that is succinctly expresses the idea. The modifier in C can be done away though the way D is written may sound wrong to a native's ear.

D
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(C) Zhuangzi had a highly imaginative interpretation of Daoism, but this interpretation had less of an impact on the course of Chinese civilization than his contemporary Mengzi, whose interpretation of Confucianism was more influential

Compare "people" to "this interpretation" - NOPE

(D) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as had his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism

Correctly compare Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism to Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism.
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sarathgopinath
Hi mikemcgarry
I eliminated this option because of this part of the option which states 'whereas his contemporary Zhuangzi’s interpretation'
It would be illogical to say that his contemporary is Zhuangzi's interpretation.

This was my line of reasoning.
Could you tell me if I'm right?
Dear sarathgopinath,

My friend, see my post in this thread from yesterday, in which I just discussed this very issue. My friend, part of due diligence involves reading everything in the thread, so you know whether what you want to ask has already been discussed. This is best way to show that respect the time and the energy of the experts on this site.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)

Hi Mike,
Can you please elaborate on the use of had in option D. On one side we have didnot have, whereas on the other side we are using had

D) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as had his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism

I thought that option D would be correct if the sentence were written down in either of the below two formats-

1) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism did

2) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as did his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism
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sunny91
Hi Mike,
Can you please elaborate on the use of had in option D. On one side we have didnot have, whereas on the other side we are using had

D) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as had his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism

I thought that option D would be correct if the sentence were written down in either of the below two formats-

1) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism did

2) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as did his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism
Dear sunny91,

A great question, my friend! I'm happy to respond. :-)

There are two issues here. The first is the placement of the verb: at the beginning, as in your (1), or at the end, as in your (2). Here's what I'll say. Version #1 is not wrong, but it's simplistic. Among native speakers, it's how we would expect a child or a relatively unsophisticated writer to phrase the information. Version #2 is inherently more sophisticated and elegant: putting the verb at the beginning has that spark the connotes an intelligent and sophisticated writer. Many many OAs on the GMAT SC have a similar spark to them.

Given that we are going to put the verb at the beginning, what verb to we use? Again, it's not wrong to use "did," but it's less desirable. The forms of the verb "to do" are the generic substitution for any verb, and it's certainly appropriate if there's a long or complicated predicate. See:
Repeating Verb Phrases on the GMAT
Thus, we always could use the generic substitute verb, but when we can, it's more elegant, a tighter and more unified sentence, to use the real verb, and if the real verb is just as short, then there's something almost jarring about using the substitute verb "to do" rather than the real verb.

Here, the real verb is "had," the opposite of "did not have." These are the positive & negative of the ordinary past tense.
I had an ice cream cone. My friend did not have one.
My friend had a dog when she was growing up, but I did not have one.
Coleridge had classical education, but Blake did not have such a background.

The opposite of "A did not have X" is simply "A had X." Those two forms imply each other, especially in a statement of contrast. And, again, it's much better to use the real verb, the contextual verb, rather than the generic substitute "did." Using the verb from in context helps to unify the sentence and give it coherences--also sparks that connote an intelligent and perceptive writer.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)
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sunny91
Hi Mike,
Can you please elaborate on the use of had in option D. On one side we have didnot have, whereas on the other side we are using had

D) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as had his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism

I thought that option D would be correct if the sentence were written down in either of the below two formats-

1) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism did

2) Zhuangzi’s interpretation of Daoism, though highly imaginative, did not have as lasting an impact on the course of Chinese civilization as did his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation of Confucianism
Dear sunny91,

A great question, my friend! I'm happy to respond. :-)

There are two issues here. The first is the placement of the verb: at the beginning, as in your (1), or at the end, as in your (2). Here's what I'll say. Version #1 is not wrong, but it's simplistic. Among native speakers, it's how we would expect a child or a relatively unsophisticated writer to phrase the information. Version #2 is inherently more sophisticated and elegant: putting the verb at the beginning has that spark the connotes an intelligent and sophisticated writer. Many many OAs on the GMAT SC have a similar spark to them.

Given that we are going to put the verb at the beginning, what verb to we use? Again, it's not wrong to use "did," but it's less desirable. The forms of the verb "to do" are the generic substitution for any verb, and it's certainly appropriate if there's a long or complicated predicate. See:
Repeating Verb Phrases on the GMAT
Thus, we always could use the generic substitute verb, but when we can, it's more elegant, a tighter and more unified sentence, to use the real verb, and if the real verb is just as short, then there's something almost jarring about using the substitute verb "to do" rather than the real verb.

Here, the real verb is "had," the opposite of "did not have." These are the positive & negative of the ordinary past tense.
I had an ice cream cone. My friend did not have one.
My friend had a dog when she was growing up, but I did not have one.
Coleridge had classical education, but Blake did not have such a background.

The opposite of "A did not have X" is simply "A had X." Those two forms imply each other, especially in a statement of contrast. And, again, it's much better to use the real verb, the contextual verb, rather than the generic substitute "did." Using the verb from in context helps to unify the sentence and give it coherences--also sparks that connote an intelligent and perceptive writer.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)

Thanks Mike. The examples u provided really help me in understanding the construction.
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KS15
Hi Mike,

I was able to eliminate ABC-and ended up selecting E. In D, is it correct to say 'his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation'. Should it not be his contemporary Mengzi?
Dear KS15,

My friend, I don't know whether you noticed that (E), in addition to some rhetorical difficulties, creates an illogical comparison. You would have to read the OE and the discussion in the original post to understand this. Follow the link in my original post in this thread.

It is 100% correct to use a non-possessive appositive to modify a noun in the possessive. Thus, "his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation" is perfectly correct. It would be far more long-winded and indirect to say, "the interpretation of his contemporary Mengzi."

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)



Though you say "his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation" is equivalent to "the interpretation of his contemporary Mengzi", I still have doubt.
If we change the possessive form to "of form" it will look like the below-mentioned phrase not like the above-mentioned one.
his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation = his contemporary interpretation of Mengzi.
This is because it is talking about interpretation, not about the person who did it.

Here, I do not understand what exactly was your logic to say "his contemporary Mengzi’s interpretation" is equivalent to "the interpretation of his contemporary Mengzi". If you kindly explain.
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