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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States

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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 27 Sep 2018, 03:41
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A
B
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D
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Question Stats:

72% (00:51) correct 28% (00:58) wrong based on 1973 sessions

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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States until the First World War; before that time the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue.


A. the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue

B. the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue

C. tariffs were what the federal government was dependent on to be its main source of revenue

D. the main source of revenue for the federal government was dependent on tariffs

E. for their main source of revenue, tariffs were depended on by the federal government

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Originally posted by Gnpth on 04 Jul 2016, 03:56.
Last edited by Bunuel on 27 Sep 2018, 03:41, edited 1 time in total.
Renamed the topic and edited the question.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2016, 05:02
1
Gnpth wrote:
The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States until the First World War; before that time the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue.

A. the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue
B. the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue
C. tariffs were what the federal government was dependent on to be its main source of revenue
D. the main source of revenue for the federal government was dependent on tariffs
E. for their main source of revenue, tariffs were depended on by the federal government



A--The subject Federal govt is singular(collective noun) and does not take plural their as the verb
B. The correct answer
C. Wordy and awkward
D. this sentence distorts the meaning--how can the source be dependent on tariffs.
E. plural verb their and awkward construction
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2016, 10:32
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Gnpth wrote:
The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States until the First World War; before that time the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue.

A. the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue
B. the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue
C. tariffs were what the federal government was dependent on to be its main source of revenue
D. the main source of revenue for the federal government was dependent on tariffs
E. for their main source of revenue, tariffs were depended on by the federal government


Correct answer must be (B) for the highlighted errors above...

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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2016, 10:41
A. the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue
B. the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue
C. tariffs were what the federal government was dependent on to be its main source of revenue
D. the main source of revenue for the federal government was dependent on tariffs
E. for their main source of revenue, tariffs were depended on by the federal government
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2016, 20:52
1
I chose answer choice D however it now makes sense why it distorts the meaning of the sentence.

Can anyone verify that when you have a time marker such as 'before' you don't have to have the sentence in perfect tense. I'm pretty sure it can go either way.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Jul 2016, 01:28
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alpham wrote:
I chose answer choice D however it now makes sense why it distorts the meaning of the sentence.

Can anyone verify that when you have a time marker such as 'before' you don't have to have the sentence in perfect tense. I'm pretty sure it can go either way.


Manhattan SC guide states that use of words such as "after" / " before" makes the use of past perfect unnecessary - following is an excerpt from the book:

Right: Laura LOCKED the deadbolt before she LEFT for work.
Likewise, we already know that locked happens before left because of the word before. The words before and after indicate the sequence of events clearly and emphatically enough to make the use of the Past Perfect unnecessary.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Jul 2016, 02:37
But here, the correct option uses past perfect. So, should we consider this an exception?
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Jul 2016, 03:30
PrijitDebnath wrote:
But here, the correct option uses past perfect. So, should we consider this an exception?


Option B does not match with what Manhattan SC guide states, and I cannot see any reason that this should be an exception. Probably the question writer could explain the usage, unless it is an oversight.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 11 Sep 2016, 22:10
Yes. According to Manhattan SC guidelines, option B would be wrong.
Usage of before clearly states that action happened before the action states in past tense.
So what should one do in this case?
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Feb 2017, 07:59
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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States until the First World War; before that time the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue.

Issue: Structure | Verb tense

Analysis:
1. The sentence connects two independent clause using ";". For such structures, the second clause should be independent and follow from previous clause.
2. In the second clause the action "government was dependent on tariffs" occurs before action in first clause "personal income tax did not become permanent...". Hence, we can use "past prefect" form of the verb in second clause.
.

I have highlighted the errors below:

A. the federal government was dependent on tariffs to be their main source of revenue
- Incorrect verb form
- Pronoun ambiguity


B. the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue

C. tariffs were what the federal government was dependent on to be its main source of revenue
- Incorrect verb form
- "were what" (not sure about this but this seems overly complex specially when a better option is present; Can someone explain if this is grammatically correct?)


D. the main source of revenue for the federal government was dependent on tariffs
- Changes the meaning. The sentence seems to indicate that the source was dependent.

E. for their main source of revenue, tariffs were depended on by the federal government
- If you read the whole clause with this option, "before that time for their main source..." has structure issue
- Changes the meaning. The sentence seems to indicate that the source was dependent.


Answer: B.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Apr 2017, 06:45
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sayantanc2k wrote:
alpham wrote:
I chose answer choice D however it now makes sense why it distorts the meaning of the sentence.

Can anyone verify that when you have a time marker such as 'before' you don't have to have the sentence in perfect tense. I'm pretty sure it can go either way.


Manhattan SC guide states that use of words such as "after" / " before" makes the use of past perfect unnecessary - following is an excerpt from the book:

Right: Laura LOCKED the deadbolt before she LEFT for work.
Likewise, we already know that locked happens before left because of the word before. The words before and after indicate the sequence of events clearly and emphatically enough to make the use of the Past Perfect unnecessary.


sayantanc2k, PrijitDebnath, Excerpt from Manhattan SC.

Note that we do not always use the Past Perfect for earlier actions. In general, you should use Past Perfect only to clarify or emphasize a sequence of past events. The earlier event should somehow have a bearing on the context of the later event. Moreover, if the sequence is already obvious, we often do not need Past Perfect.

[Right] Antonio DROVE to the store and BOUGHT some ice cream.

We already know that drove happened before bought. A sequence of verbs with the same subject does not require Past Perfect. Rather, use the Simple Past for all the verbs.

[Right] Antonio DROVE to the store, and Cristina BOUGHT some ice cream.

In the sentence above, which has two main clauses linked by and, we are not emphasizing the order of events (although drove probably happened before bought). Clauses linked by and or but do not require the Past Perfect as a general rule.

[Right] Laura LOCKED the deadbolt before she LEFT for work.

UNFORTUNATELY, in this problem, Past Perfect is applicable since the clauses do not linked by and or but . Take note!

[CORRECT] The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States until the First World War; before that time the federal government had depended on tariffs as its main source of revenue.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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It is futile to worry about whether the use of the past perfect in the given case is correct or not. It is 100% correct. That we use a past perfect or a simple past when a time reference such as 'before' or 'after' is already mentioned is a matter of option.

However, the most critical consideration in the context is to ask whether there is another choice (without other glaring errors) using the simple past. We do not have one in this case and therefore why waste time on the non-extant issue. We can rest assured that on the GMAT, we will never have both such choices in the same question.

B is the inevitable choice.
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Re: The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Sep 2018, 03:37
himanshu644 wrote:
Yes. According to Manhattan SC guidelines, option B would be wrong.
Usage of before clearly states that action happened before the action states in past tense.
So what should one do in this case?

I 100% agree with the discussion here that when the event order indicators such as before/after et al are present, they deem the usage of present perfect unnecessary.
Manhattan guides state the same, but we need to be cognisant of the fact that POE is our best friend on the GMAT. All other options are terrible if we compare them to B.
The only thing I see in B is the usage of HAD. But there are options such as D and E, which change the meaning of the sentence all together.
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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Sep 2018, 07:09
daagh wrote:
It is futile to worry about whether the use of the past perfect in the given case is correct or not. It is 100% correct. That we use a past perfect or a simple past when a time reference such as 'before' or 'after' is already mentioned is a matter of option.

However, the most critical consideration in the context is to ask whether there is another choice (without other glaring errors) using the simple past. We do not have one in this case and therefore why waste time on the non-extant issue. We can rest assured that on the GMAT, we will never have both such choices in the same question.

B is the inevitable choice.


Thanks daagh. You are always very direct in your explanations. B is the best choice among others.
But considering the debate about the usage of past perfect with the words before/after, which already defines the sequencing of events, what I believe is usage of past perfect tense with these words (before / after) is OPTIONAL but not redundant. Also, as it is an official question and the correct answer choice is B, so GMAT is okay with this construction.
When you use the words before/after -
Simple past for earlier event + Simple past for later event - Correct
Past perfect for earlier event + Simple past for later event - Correct

Also, the same was written in DmitryFarber's post -
https://gmatclub.com/forum/literacy-ope ... l#p1830588 (nothing can stop us, we're all the way up ;) )

Any experts would want to comment on my explanation? sayantanc2k GMATNinja mikemcgarry DmitryFarber
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The personal income tax did not become permanent in the United States &nbs [#permalink] 30 Sep 2018, 07:09
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