Sry Bunuel for starting a new thread with this question. It was hard to search for.
Here is my issue:
Statement I gives: (x+y)(x−y)>(x−y)
Now, why can't I just delete (x-y) from both sides? I mean divide (x-y) by (x-y). It doesnt matter if its positive or negative, RHS will still be 1. So I should get:
x+y>1
The same idea with statement 2 and combining the statements gives:
x+y>1>x−y
However, in the official explanation, they get: (x+y)>(x^2–y^2)>(x−y)
I still manage to get the correct answer. I just dont really get why my approach is wrong according to the official explanation from Veritas Prep:
"Let’s start by rewriting the equation on the left of both inequalities. x^2–y^2 is the difference of squares, so it can be expressed as (x+y)(x-y). Statement (1) thus says that (x+y)(x-y) > (x-y), so (x+y) > 1 if (x-y) is positive
and (x+y) < 1 if (x-y) is negative."
As for the bolded part of the OE: Why does it matter whether (x-y) is positive or negative? I mean:
Let x+y = a, x-y = b
ab > b
If only b is negative, then I see why we have to flip the sign. But we dont know whether a is positive or negative, so we shouldnt be able to flip the sign just by assuming b is negative.
The inequality given is true and it only holds when a and b have the same sign. So either both are negative or both are positive and we don't have to flip any signs.
So - How can ab become a<1 if b is negative? I mean this doesnt hold anymore.
a = 2, b = -2 --> -4>2 - but this is not what we are told. b can only be negative if a is also negative. So ab>b can never become ab<1.