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V99-15

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V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Sep 2014, 02:30
4
2
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

Difficulty:

  45% (medium)

Question Stats:

43% (00:16) correct 57% (00:16) wrong based on 152 sessions

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Choose the sentence with properly used idiom (emphasized with boldface). Please note that a wrong answer choice may be grammatically correct.

A. We have one chance in a million of winning the World Cup.
B. We have one in a million chances to win the World Cup.
C. We have one chance in a million for winning the World Cup.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

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Re V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Sep 2014, 02:30
Official Solution:

Choose the sentence with properly used idiom (emphasized with boldface). Please note that a wrong answer choice may be grammatically correct.

A. We have one chance in a million of winning the World Cup.
B. We have one in a million chances to win the World Cup.
C. We have one chance in a million for winning the World Cup.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above



Answer: A
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Aug 2015, 10:44
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why is B wrong?
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Jul 2016, 09:44
B uses 'chances', had it been 'chance', then B would have been the ideal choice.
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 09 Mar 2017, 07:14
I am not clear about the explanation
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Mar 2017, 22:44
thanks for an idiom rarely mentioned in any of the guides available in the marketplace.............
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Jun 2017, 00:50
We have one in a million chances to win the World Cup

We - have one chances (should be - chance) - to win the World Cup

'in a million' - prepositional phrase

It seems the answer should be 'None of the above'.
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New post 27 Aug 2017, 21:54
Does anyone have an explanation for this ?
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 09 Sep 2017, 21:40
"chance of" is the correct idiomatic usage.
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Re V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Mar 2018, 20:01
I think this is a poor-quality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate.
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New post 13 Apr 2018, 09:20
Please someone explain as it is very confusing and no one has been able to provide with the proper explanation.
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Re: V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 09 Aug 2018, 07:01
Bunuel wrote:
Official Solution:

Choose the sentence with properly used idiom (emphasized with boldface). Please note that a wrong answer choice may be grammatically correct.

A. We have one chance in a million of winning the World Cup.
B. We have one in a million chances to win the World Cup.
C. We have one chance in a million for winning the World Cup.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above



Answer: A


Please explain why A is correct and why B and C are wrong.
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V99-15  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Sep 2018, 12:13
This is a poor-quality question.

Are there popular examples of people using 'one chance in a million of xx'? I haven't come across any. Kind of defeats the purpose (of being idiomatic) if it's practically never used.

The correct idiomatic usage would be as follows:
We have a one-in-a-million chance of winning the cup.
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V99-15   [#permalink] 12 Sep 2018, 12:13
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