Last visit was: 15 Dec 2024, 04:48 It is currently 15 Dec 2024, 04:48
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
avatar
AnirudhTiwari
Joined: 10 Oct 2019
Last visit: 17 Jun 2020
Posts: 2
Given Kudos: 4
Posts: 2
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
chetan2u
User avatar
RC & DI Moderator
Joined: 02 Aug 2009
Last visit: 14 Dec 2024
Posts: 11,433
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 333
Status:Math and DI Expert
Products:
Expert reply
Posts: 11,433
Kudos: 38,057
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
avatar
AnirudhTiwari
Joined: 10 Oct 2019
Last visit: 17 Jun 2020
Posts: 2
Given Kudos: 4
Posts: 2
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Kinshook
User avatar
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 03 Jun 2019
Last visit: 15 Dec 2024
Posts: 5,425
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Location: India
GMAT 1: 690 Q50 V34
WE:Engineering (Transportation)
Products:
GMAT 1: 690 Q50 V34
Posts: 5,425
Kudos: 4,599
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
AnirudhTiwari
Company A has 400 employees and company B has 500 employees. Among these employees, there are 50 married couples, each consisting of an employee from A and employee from B. If 1 employee is selected at random from each company, what is the probability that that the two employees selected would be a married couple?

I solved this question by calculating P(Picking a married person in company A)*P(picking the corresponding spouse in company B) + P(Picking a married person in company B)*P(Picking the corresponding spouse in A) = (50/400)*(1/500) + (50/500)*(1/400) = 1/2000.

But the answer provided by CrackVerbal is 1/40000. This is Question 6 on Application Videos of Probability. Can someone please clarify this?


Thanks
Anirudh

Probability = 50/500 * 1/400 or 50/400* 1/500 = 1/4000
User avatar
CrackverbalGMAT
User avatar
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 03 Oct 2013
Last visit: 15 Dec 2024
Posts: 4,877
Own Kudos:
8,154
 []
Given Kudos: 224
Affiliations: CrackVerbal
Location: India
Posts: 4,877
Kudos: 8,154
 []
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
AnirudhTiwari
Company A has 400 employees and company B has 500 employees. Among these employees, there are 50 married couples, each consisting of an employee from A and employee from B. If 1 employee is selected at random from each company, what is the probability that that the two employees selected would be a married couple?

I solved this question by calculating P(Picking a married person in company A)*P(picking the corresponding spouse in company B) + P(Picking a married person in company B)*P(Picking the corresponding spouse in A) = (50/400)*(1/500) + (50/500)*(1/400) = 1/2000.

But the answer provided by CrackVerbal is 1/40000. This is Question 6 on Application Videos of Probability. Can someone please clarify this?


Thanks
Anirudh


Hello Anirudh,

As the other experts have already highlighted on their posts, you only need to select the respective halves of the couple from each company only once.

Selecting one person belonging to the couple from, say company A can happen in 50 ways. Therefore, probability = \(\frac{50}{400}\).

Selecting the other person belonging to the couple from company B can happen in only 1 way. Probability = \(\frac{1}{500}\).

You do not have to double the result since the same person cannot be in both the companies at the same time.
The required probability = \(\frac{50}{400}\) * \(\frac{1}{500}\) = \(\frac{1}{4000}\).

Just wanted to clarify that the answer is given as \(\frac{1}{4000}\) and not as \(\frac{1}{40000}\).
Hope that helps!