nairaneesh
Please explain how C is a valid answer.
I am confused because MPC is applicable only when additional income comes in to play.
Read this line in the second paragraph - "Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption."
Earlier, if Income was $1000 and MPC was 0.72 (consumption 1000* 0.72 = $720), and now if the income falls to $800, the consumption remains same, then the MPC increases to 0.9 (720/800).
Hope this helps![/quote]
I agree with what you say but the very definition of MPC is that additional income that the family consumes. So if there is a decrease in income ,the MPC will be negative no ?
I think if the answer choice were to be rephrased, Decreases in income generally lead to short-run increases in
propensity to consume. Choice c would be right.

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But inst the MPC calculated on the additional income and not the total income. So if the current income is say, €1000, what can be calculated is the APC. If the income increases by say, €200, then, MPC would be calculable only in the €200 and not €1200. This is what I am inferring.
I understand this is not the learning from this GMAT question, but only curios to understand the solution.
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