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Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro

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Re: Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 31 May 2017, 13:02
karenning2926 wrote:
Hi egmat,

I understand the explanation above in which a pronoun confusion exists. Could you answer a question for me though? Can the pronoun "it" be used if the antecedent appears after the pronoun -- referring to "Flexi Mixie Screen" as a possible pronoun.




Hello karenning2926,


Thank you for the query. :-)

Yes, a pronoun may appear in a sentence before its noun antecedent. Take a look at the following simple correct sentences:


Although he is super rich, Jack has no pride at all.

Although it is very beautiful, the new mall does not have many shops.



Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Re: Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 31 May 2017, 13:16
ayan5409 wrote:
Hi egmat,

Although swimming can cause cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet, they can usually be avoided if the swimmer avoids overexertion and performs stretching exercises before entering the pool.

Although swimming can cause cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet, they
Cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet caused by swimming
Swimming can cause cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet, which
The fact that swimming can cause cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet
Swimming can cause cramps in a swimmer's legs or feet, although they

In this sentence, 'they' can refer to only one logical antecedent 'cramps' since legs or feet will not make sense. So shouldn't the answer be A instead of B?

Please explain :)




Hello ayan5409,


Thank you for the query. :-)


You are correct in saying that in the above mentioned sentence, they can only refer to cramps logically.

However, the structure of the sentence is such the parallelism between the two clauses should be maintained. Hence, the original sentence is not correct as the subject of the first clause is swimming and the the subject of the second clause is they that refers to cramps.


Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Re: Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 27 Dec 2017, 23:03
As per earlier posts about "Myth 1 : A Pronoun can refer to only nearest nount", below sentence dont have any ambiguity. Here "it" and "its: refer to "manfacturerer" only.
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.

But if we place "computer chips" in place of "its" then that also make sence and it leads to ambiguity for second pronoun usage.

Will someone pls clarify about this.

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Re: Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 28 Dec 2017, 01:04
abhik1502 wrote:
As per earlier posts about "Myth 1 : A Pronoun can refer to only nearest nount", below sentence dont have any ambiguity. Here "it" and "its: refer to "manfacturerer" only.
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.

But if we place "computer chips" in place of "its" then that also make sence and it leads to ambiguity for second pronoun usage.

Will someone pls clarify about this.



Hello abhik1502,

I will be glad to help you with this one. :-)

Please note that computer chips is a plural noun entity. There is no way we can replace the singular pronoun its with plural noun computer chips in this official sentence as doing so will lead to pronoun-antecedent number agreement error.

The singular form of computer chips is computer chip.


Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Re: Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 28 Dec 2017, 22:59
Thanks a lot Shraddha for answering my earlier query !

I had one more. Below sentence is from Myth4

Official Sentence 2: As its sales of computer products have surpassed those of measuring instruments, the company has become increasingly willing to compete for the mass market sales it would in the past have conceded to rivals. (OG12 #07)

Out there as per intended meaning pronoun "its" refers to company. But why can it refer to market also. Market is also singular noun out here and make sense also.

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Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro [#permalink]

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New post 29 Dec 2017, 13:26
abhik1502 wrote:
Thanks a lot Shraddha for answering my earlier query !

I had one more. Below sentence is from Myth4

Official Sentence 2: As its sales of computer products have surpassed those of measuring instruments, the company has become increasingly willing to compete for the mass market sales it would in the past have conceded to rivals. (OG12 #07)

Out there as per intended meaning pronoun "its" refers to company. But why can it refer to market also. Market is also singular noun out here and make sense also.




Hello abhik1502,

Thank you for the query. :-)

Presence of multiple nouns having the same number as the pronoun does not lead to pronoun ambiguity.

Pronoun ambiguity error happens when more than two nouns makes logical sense as the antecedent of one pronoun.

Now let's talk about the pronoun reference in the official sentence that you have mentioned in your post.

The sentence Presents cause-and-effect.

Cause - Sales of computer products have surpassed the sales of measuring instruments.
Effect - The company is ready to compete with its rivals for mass market sales. This will to compete is something that this company would have conceded to its rival.

So the company has decided to compete because its sales have gone up and not the market's sales. So logically, its refer to company only.

Grammatically, its cannot refer to market because pronouns can reefer to only nouns. But in this sentence the word market has been used as an adjective. The phrase mass market presents more information about sales.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Pronouns: Debunking Popular Myths: Intro   [#permalink] 29 Dec 2017, 13:26

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