tuanquang269
The term "Immaculate Conception", a doctrine that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with ordinary procreative means.
(A) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, not referring to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously despite his mother Mary being a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred with
(B) that the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, did not refer to the conception of Jesus, which, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to be occurring by
(C) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referring not to the conception of Jesus, that in Christianity occurred miraculously with his mother Mary being a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred in
(D) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, refers not to the conception of Jesus, which, according to Christianity, occurred miraculously even though his mother Mary was a virgin, but to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that this conception is believed to have occurred by
(E) of the Roman Catholic Church formally proclaimed in 1854, referred not to the conception of Jesus, that, as Christianity says, occurred miraculously when his mother Mary was a virgin, and to the conception of Mary in the womb of her mother, Anne, despite the fact that they believe this conception occurred by
Dear
tuanquang269I'm happy to respond!
This is another question that I wrote, so I am happy to explain it. It's a wordy and hard one.
Split #1: As the prompt stands, it has no full verb---it's not a complete sentence. Both (A) and (C) have the participle "
referring," rather than a full verb at that place. The famous
missing verb mistake! These two are wrong.
Split #2: the mysterious "
they" --- in options (A) & (E), we have ". . .
the fact that they believe . . ." Presumably, the referent are the people in the Roman Catholic Church, but this Church is a singular collective noun, and would have to take a singular pronoun. Use of "
they" here is wrong.
Split #3: idiom with "
means." The word "
means" occurs after the underlined section. The correct idiom is "
by means" or "
by [adjective] means." The constructions "
in means" or "
with means" are incorrect, so we can reject choices (A) & (C).
Split #4: the mid-sentence contrast, after "
occurred miraculously"
(A)
despite his mother Mary being a virgin = awkward, not acceptable on the GMAT
(B)
even though his mother Mary was a virgin = a full clause = perfectly fine
(C)
with his mother Mary being a virgin = no contrast at all, and an awkward unacceptable construction
(D)
even though his mother Mary was a virgin = a full clause = perfectly fine
(E)
with his mother Mary being a virgin = no contrast at all, and an awkward unacceptable construction
In choices (A), (C), and (E), we have the construction
[preposition] + [noun] + [participle]. In some uses, as here, this construction is entirely unacceptable. For a more detailed discussion, see,
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2015/with-noun- ... orrection/All of these taken together show that the only possible answer here is
(D).
Does all this make sense?
Mike