Lawana911
Why not D? Can someone please explain?
This question is strange. I think the first 'it' is maybe supposed to be 'he?'
But the reason D is wrong is a standard GMAT parallelism error. It's one we don't care about in day to die life, but once you start noticing it is free points.
There are certain 'pairs' of words we all 'closed parallelism' markers. These are structures like 'either...or,' 'neither...nor,' 'between... and,' 'both...and.'
These are really helpful gifts, because whatever follows these markers needs to be the same kind of structure.
"He is going to the store both to buy food and to see his friend, who works as a cashier."
So 'to buy,' and 'to see' are mirrored structures. They're both 'infinitives,' and give reasons why he is going to the store.
While I wouldn't care in life, on the GMAT, this is wrong:
"He is going to the store both to buy food and visit his friend, who works as a cashier."
'to buy' and 'visit' are now NOT the same kind of word. 'To buy' is an infinitive, 'visit' is just a *verb*.
So with D, here, '...both for the book and the man,' we have a similar error. 'For the book' is a prepositional phrase, 'the man' is just a noun. I know what is meant, but the structure must be consistent. It should use either: "an aversion both for the book and for the man" or "an aversion for both the book and the man."
Parallelism is a great thing to keep an eye out for on the GMAT. Once you start seeing things like this, wrong answers jump out as obvious.