thangvietnam
so,
" most all of " is correct"almost all of.." is also correct
both above patterns are correct ? or any pattern is wrong?
pls, explain clearly . thank you
thangvietnam , no,
most all of is not correct.
Please look upthread at
Skywalker18 's post,
HERE.
What part of that explanation does not seem clear to you?
We are trying to describe a quantity of or a number of tennis students.
All of the tennis instructors play [tennis] well.
Do all of the tennis students play as well all of the tennis instructors?
Answer:
Nearly all = almost all of the tennis students play as well as all of the tennis coaches do.
When we want to say that the quantity of one group
is just a little smaller than the other group,
we use "almost all"We do not use
most all
The phrase is nonsensical.
Correct:
Almost all of the apples were delicious.100 apples. 98 were delicious
Wrong: Most all of the apples were delicious.
What the heck is "most all"?
MOST apples were delicious [and] ALL apples were delicious?
-- MOST: 100 apples. 80 were delicious
-- ALL: 100 apples. 100 were delicious
HERE, HERE, and
HERE are three very short posts that explain why
almost can modify
all but
most cannot modify
all.
If the word ALL is present, do not put the word MOST before
all.We can say
almost all of them
almost all of whom
nearly all of them
nearly all of whom
not quite all of them
not quite all of whom
In the U.S., in informal speech, people sometimes say "most all of whom" rather than "almost all of whom."
Those people shortened [i]almost to
most. That usage is not accepted on the GMAT or in formal writing, and it makes no sense.